Comparing K.J.B. with N.W.T.

[placebofactor]

This is a direct challenge, verse by verse of the N.W.T., and the King James Bible. I am not going to give an opinion. You can compare and decide which Bible is true to the word. I will be using an 1824 and 2015 King James Bibles. As for the N.W.T., I have the 1971, 1984, and 2013 editions. Their first copyright came out in 1961. Before 1961 the Witnesses used a K.J.B.

Okay, let’s get started.
We should all agree on this. The original language of the Old Testament was written in Hebrew and a few verses were written in Chaldean. The New Testament was originally penned in Greek.
The foundation source for the K.J.B. is the Textus Receptus or Received Text. The translation of the text of all ancient known Papyrus Fragments, Uncials, Cursives, and Lectionaries, collectively are known as the "Receptus Textus" and the "Masoretic text." Their number, 5,500 copies, plus 86,000 quotations or allusions to the Scriptures by early Church Fathers. There are another 45 document sources for the N.W.T., although they list 94 in the 1984 edition. The N.W.T. two main sources are the "B" Vatican manuscripts 1209, and the A. or, "Aleph Sinaiticus."

Let’s begin with Philippians 2:8-9-10-11.

Verse 8 in K.J.B. ends with “death of the cross.”
Verse 8, N.W.T. ends with, “death on a torture stake.”

Verse 9 in the N.W.T. ends with a comma “,”.
Verse 9 in the K.J.B. ends with a colon: I hope you understand the difference between the two. The N.W.T. is the only Bible that ends verse 9 with a comma.

Also, note as you read these verses, they have added the word (other) and put it in brackets in the 1984 edition, but removed the brackets in the 1971 or 2013 editions, making it part of the verse. Adding the word (other) gives a reader the impression that the name of Jesus is second to the name Jehovah. In their Interlinear translation, their Greek reads, “over every name.”

Also, "(at) the name of Jesus" has been changed to "(in) the name of Jesus.
"Bow a knee" has been changed to "bend," and "confess" has been changed to "acknowledge."

Bend is not a New Testament word. In the O.T. it is used strictly for “bending or stringing a bow.” To bow a knee is to pay homage or worship. Compare with Romans 14:11, As I live, said the LORD, every knee shall bow to me,” Same word in Philippians.

In English, "bend," means to change shape, or change someone's will, to yield or submit. To yield or submit is not to worship. This change of words chips away at the glory of the Lord Jesus.
Compare verses below:

K.J.B.
Philippians 2: 9-10-11, "God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth and things under the earth; (semi colon) And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

N.W.T.
Philippians 2:9-10-11, “For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every (other) name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, (coma) and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.
Your comments on the above.

[tygger2]

[Replying to onewithhim in post #250]

There are 4 different cases (5 if you count the vocative which is seldom used) for nouns. That is, just to take the noun in question (god), Nominative (theos), Accusative (theon) Genitive (theou) Dative (theo). They all mean "god" but are different parts of speech. For example, theos is used as the subject or predicate noun in a clause. Theon is used as an object, usually the direct object, in a clause. Theou is used, normally as "of god." Etc.

For it to mean "God" the nominative theos will have the definite article (ho) with it. Their are a few exceptions, but they are well known.

So the use of theon in John 1:1b merely indicates it is an object. But it has the definite article (tov in the accusative case) so it refers to God. In John 1:1c the unmodified theos does not have the article (ho in the nominative case), so it does not refer to God.

[Difflugia]

Will you please link to the post that mentions "chairman of the committee" I would like to read the comment in context.

[onewithhim]

[Replying to onewithhim in post #250]

There are 4 different cases (5 if you count the vocative which is seldom used) for nouns. That is, just to take the noun in question (god), Nominative (theos), Accusative (theon) Genitive (theou) Dative (theo). They all mean "god" but are different parts of speech. For example, theos is used as the subject or predicate noun in a clause. Theon is used as an object, usually the direct object, in a clause. Theou is used, normally as "of god." Etc.

For it to mean "God" the nominative theos will have the definite article (ho) with it. Their are a few exceptions, but they are well known.

So the use of theon in John 1:1b merely indicates it is an object. But it has the definite article (tov in the accusative case) so it refers to God. In John 1:1c the unmodified theos does not have the article (ho in the nominative case), so it does not refer to God.

Simply put, and correct, for anyone who understands the rules for translating Greek into English.

[JehovahsWitness]

The Greeks certainly used metaphor and hyperbole, but "god," "master," and "chairman of the committee" weren't interchangeable concepts.

This comment us uncalled for and misleading, nobody in this thread has said that {to quote you} " "god," "master," and "chairman of the committee" [were] interchangeable concepts" and there is no reason to imply anyone has claimed so.

Do better!


JW