JehovahsWitness wrote:
Slavery means that one person, the slave, belongs to, and is the property of, another person, the owner.
While this statement is essentially accurate "property" is generally kept under the control of the owner as long as he or she wishes. This was not the case under the Hebrew system where the slave was in servitude
for a fixed period of time.
You are talking about indentured servitude. According to the bible indentured servitude and slavery are two different things:
Leviticus 25:39 "And if your brother becomes poor beside you, and sells himself to you, you shall not make him serve as a slave: he shall be with you as a hired servant and as a sojourner."
So let's not get mixed up between the two. When the bible is talking about slavery it really is talking about slavery.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
All Hebrew slaves were freed after 7 years of servitude and all slaves could regain their freedom during the jubilee which was every 50th year (regardless of how long they had been in servitude). Any slave (Hebrew or foreigner)'s freedom could be bought back by a blood relative at any time. Any slave that happens to come across the means to buy his freedom was free to do so.
Hebrew slaves were not slaves but servants. Real slaves had no such privileges:
Leviticus 25:45-46
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
Not the very last part of the verse. You shall not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly. This implies that it's ok to rule over non-Israelites ruthlessly.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Abusive treatment of one's slave was strictly prohibited by the law
Clearly not as you can see by the previous verse. It was only Israelites who had that protection. REAL slaves however had no such protection:
Exodus 21:20-21
When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property.
But here's an interesting scripture. It seems even Servants can be brutalised too!:
Luke 12:47
The servant who knows the master’s will and does not get ready or does not do what the master wants will be beaten with many blows.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
which stated that Hebrews were to "
love their neighbour as themselves". "One's neighbour", as Jesus was later to clarify, was anyone they came into contact with. The same law code ordered that foreigners were to be treated fairly and their rights protected. If the above laws were applied as intended no master would have mistreated or abused his slave.
Jesus says otherwise in Luke 12:47.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Also sexual immorality was illegal. So if a man had sex with a virgin girl (Hebrew or free woman) he had to marry her.
And you see this as moral?
Notice the rest of that passage too:
"and they are found out then the man who lay with her shall give to the young woman's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife because he has humbled her; he shall not be permitted to divorce her all his days."
Does that sound like a woman who has all the rights of a wife? She will be not permitted to divorce her rapist. How cruel is that? She is forced to live in a loveless marriage.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Premeditated murder was punishable by death. A slave owner could not simply kill his slave if he ran away or hunt and slaughter him like an animal. Murdering another human being (even if he was a slave) was strictly prohibited.
But manslaughter was fine. See above scripture. It's ok to beat the slave to near death. Just as long as they don't die within two days.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
[The slave] is not free to leave, regardless of how he or she is treated
This was not true under the Hebrew system.
A SERVANT was free to leave. A slave was not.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Physically restraining (chaining or tying) ones slaves would be considered a violation of their person (and of the law to love their neighbour) and so slaves were not physically restrained or treated like animals.
Where does it say that in the bible?
JehovahsWitness wrote:
so slaves were not physically restrained or treated like animals.
Beating your slave to an inch of death is not treating them like animals?
Buying and selling slaves is not treating them like animals?
JehovahsWitness wrote:
They could if they chose "run away" although that would be considered a type of theft since they had contracturally agreed to work for a period of time in return for food and shelter.
A contractual agreement was done in a case of indentured servitude where a person sold themselves into servanthood. However they were not slaves as I point out in Lev 25:39. Slaves were not under contract. Slaves were the property of the owner and as such were under their mercy.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
(This option however would not be particularly appealing to a slave since Hebrew slaves were not forced or taken into slavery but enter into it of their own free will
That is indentured servitude. Not slavery. Levi 25:39 shows us that.
Slaves who were taken after invading other countries were not indentured servants. They were slaves and forced into it. Those sold from one person to another were not indentured servants either. They were slaves - forced into it.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
to avoid hard circumstances (the exception to the above was someone found guilty of theif but lacking the means to repay what he had stolen, would have to sell himself into slavery for the time it took to pay back what he had stolen).
Indentured servitude. Not slavery.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
If they ran away they would of course only find themselves back in the situation they wanted to avoid in the first place).
They were not slaves but servants.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
Further slaves that fullfilled their contracts where not sent away "empty handed" but given the financial means to start a new life, something they would forfiet if they left early.
Those were not slaves. They were indentured servants.
JehovahsWitness wrote:
As has been explained, under the Mosaic Law servitude of a Hebrew was for a fixed period, so while a son may inherit Hebrew slaves that wouldn't be for very long.
Non-Hebrews could indeed be passed from father to son as part of the son's inheritance. But remember under the Hebrew system the right of buying ones redemtion (freedom) was always a possibility. Slaves did not work for nothing, nor were they prohibited from owning property or trading with their own means so slave could in fact become wealthy and if they so wished buy their own freedom. The right of a blood relative to buy them their freedom also remained in permanence. (see Lev 25: 49).]
Note Leviticus 25:45-46
…45Then, too, it is out of the sons of the sojourners who live as aliens among you that you may gain acquisition, and out of their families who are with you, whom they will have produced in your land; they also may become your possession. 46'You may even bequeath them to your sons after you, to receive as a possession;
you can use them as permanent slaves. But in respect to your countrymen, the sons of Israel, you shall not rule with severity over one another.
They weren't all under a fixed period as it quite clear by this.
You need to read through Leviticus 25 carefully. Right up until verse 44 it's talking fellow Israelites. It's talking about indentured servitude not slavery. Its not until v44 when slaves are mentioned. These come from the other nations. SLAVES not servants! You can make them SLAVES for LIFE. It says that in vs 46.
Then in vs 47 we get back into indentured servitude again.
So only Israelites are hired servant with a contractual period. Foreigners are slaves and slaves forever. .