Did Jesus practice what he preached?

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Jagella
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Did Jesus practice what he preached?

Post #1

Post by Jagella »

According to Matthew 5:22 (NRSV) Jesus tells us:
...if you say, ‘You fool,’ you will be liable to the hell of fire.
Yet he says exactly that in Matthew 23:17 (NRSV)
You blind fools!
And in Matthew 5:39 (NRSV) we are told:
But I say to you, Do not resist an evildoer. But if anyone strikes you on the right cheek, turn the other also...
In John 18:23 (NRSV) Jesus is struck. Did he turn and offer the other cheek?
Jesus answered, “If I have spoken wrongly, testify to the wrong. But if I have spoken rightly, why do you strike me?�
No, he didn't!

Question for Debate: Why didn't Jesus take his own advice?

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Re: Did Jesus practice what he preached?

Post #11

Post by Jagella »

1213 wrote:I have no reason to think Jesus was hypocrite.
If he wasn't a hypocrite, then the gospel writers are presenting inconsistent stories about him (more on this issue shortly).
Yeah, but I think usually it would be good to look at least whole sentences or paragraphs, when they are connected and explain the matter.
I try to do just that, but problems arise when there's no limit to the text in the context. If I quote a phrase, then you can find something in the sentence you think changes the meaning of the phrase. If I quote the whole sentence, then you can find something in the paragraph you think changes the meaning of the sentence. If I quote the whole paragraph, then you can find something in the chapter you think changes the meaning of the paragraph! And on it goes. I see Christians all the time doing that: they're very adept at finding something, somewhere in the Bible they claim alters the meaning of what I cite. And you did just that: you found a phrase in the chapter in a different sentence that you say changes the meaning of a phrase I cited. I already corrected you explaining that the phrase "without a cause" applies to anger and not to calling somebody a fool which does not appear in the same sentence!

So why do you continue to cite irrelevant passages to claim I took something out of context? Is it because you're desperate to make Jesus look good?
Firstly, I am sure Bible has only small part of all that happened in the time of Jesus. It would be enormous work to write every single detail that happened then.
Why not make it an "enormous work" to include all the important details? If important details are omitted, then the meaning of what's written will be changed misleading the reader. If I can understand such an important element in writing history, then a perfect god would surely understand that he needs to include all the details.
...if Jesus would not have lived as he preached, I think we would not even have the Bible.
Why not? You don't need a Jesus at all to have a Bible. All you need are some "creative" writers who wanted to write a story not caring if it was a true story but a story that some people would insist was true.
I don’t believe that Jesus was hypocrite, because no evidence for that.
There is another possibility!
If you think John is incompetent historian, because didn’t write everything, then I accept that as your opinion. I think John did good work. Only if Jesus would have not turned other cheek, and John would not have told it, I think it would be bad. But if John didn’t report obvious matters, I think it is not a problem.
That other possibility is this: John does not have Jesus turning the other cheek when Jesus was struck because John never heard of that doctrine! The injunction to turn the other cheek appears only in Matthew 5:39 and Luke 6:29; it is nowhere to be found in John. In fact, there is no Sermon on the Mount in John. So I think the most likely explanation for Jesus not turning the other cheek in John is because John, like all the other New-Testament writers, was making up his story about Jesus. When different people make up stories, then naturally they won't get all the details right. As a matter of fact, they will get huge chunks of their stories to be inconsistent with the other story tellers.

Of course, this argument won't work for Jesus' command not to call somebody a fool because he commands this in Matthew 5:22 only to act the hypocrite as reported in the same book in Matthew 23:17. Matthew's work of fiction simply isn't consistent because Matthew got sloppy with the plot he was making up.

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Re: Did Jesus practice what he preached?

Post #12

Post by 1213 »

Jagella wrote: … I already corrected you explaining that the phrase "without a cause" applies to anger and not to calling somebody a fool which does not appear in the same sentence!
It is interesting, if in this case the previous sentence doesn’t matter. I think they are about the same matter.
Jagella wrote:
...if Jesus would not have lived as he preached, I think we would not even have the Bible.
Why not? ...
There would be no good reason to write the story.
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Re: Did Jesus practice what he preached?

Post #13

Post by Zzyzx »

.
1213 wrote:
Jagella wrote:
...if Jesus would not have lived as he preached, I think we would not even have the Bible.
Why not? ...
There would be no good reason to write the story.
Humans seem to find reason (or 'good reason') to write fantasy and fiction books of all kinds, including religious fiction (often called 'holy' book). Some base their tales on a kernel of truth about an actual person and some make up characters from pure imagination. Jesus tales may be any of these.
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Re: Did Jesus practice what he preached?

Post #14

Post by Jagella »

1213 wrote:
Jagella wrote: … I already corrected you explaining that the phrase "without a cause" applies to anger and not to calling somebody a fool which does not appear in the same sentence!
It is interesting, if in this case the previous sentence doesn’t matter. I think they are about the same matter.
Let's just say that I disagree with your grabbing a stipulation from a statement about being angry and assuming that that same stipulation applies to calling a person a fool. In other words, if it's only wrong to be angry with a person without a cause than it doesn't necessarily follow that it's wrong to call a person a fool without cause.

Another way to show that what you're saying is probably wrong is that if you are correct, then it's fine to call somebody a fool with cause. Anybody can have a cause to call another person a fool. Besides, who doesn't have a cause when they call somebody a fool? So what you are arguing reduces to an absurdity.
Jagella wrote:
...if Jesus would not have lived as he preached, I think we would not even have the Bible.
Why not? ...
There would be no good reason to write the story.
People have always come up with stories to make a person they revere look good. Fox News does so for Donald Trump all the time. For some reason the gospel writers portray a Jesus who didn't always act the way he told other people to act. I'm not sure why they wrote about Jesus that way. It does seem likely, though, that the gospel writers had Jesus say whatever seemed to be best suited for the occasion. For example, when Jesus preached the Sermon on the Mount, they wanted to write of a Jesus who forbid abusing people verbally. When they had Jesus arguing with the Pharisees, they wanted a Jesus who got tough with a competing sect. In that case the gospel writers wrote of a Jesus who put the Pharisees in their place!

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