Zzyzx wrote:.
I was inconsistent for a span of three posts (from question of the OP meaning of "evidence" in post #12 to clarification in post #15 in the thread
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 4&start=10)
What a terrible thing I have done to be self-contradictory from 11:04 AM to 12:33 PM of January 15th 2009. I make a full confession and ask your forgiveness.
Cathar wrote:
I think that is enough reason to state that stories are not good evidence or maybe not evidence at all and the stories are making the claims through the reading of the interpreter.
I can’t help but think someone is making a mountain out of someone else’s molehill.
I appreciate Zzyzx's acknowledgment, and also agree with Cathar that this thread is making a mountain out of mole hill.
In an effort to move the thread past one claim made by one poster in one thread, I'd like to suggest we look at the idea of evidence in general and biblical evidence in particular.
First, I would suggest that what counts as evidence depends on the venue in which it is presented, and this venue includes the audience to which it is addressed. In particular, each of us as individual's is free to define our own criteria for what counts as evidence
for us. So are groups. Scientists, for example, have fairly rigid requirements for what counts as evidence, theologians rather different requirements, and members of a particular denomination or church yet different requirements. Even the subforums of DC&R have somewhat different criteria, as has been noted above.
Secondly, as goat has pointed out through example, what counts as evidence depends on what claim that evidence is meant to support. Goat suggests the Bible can be taken as evidence for a group of people having believed in God and holding certain doctrines in relation to that belief. Granting this, however, does not mean one must accept that the Bible is evidence for the existence of God or that Jesus is God.
Now, as a question for goose, I would suggest he consider whether the statements made by Zzyzx present a stronger or more substantial or more important contradiction than one can find by statements made in the Bible.
Zzyzx's "contradiction" depends on the presence or absence of two qualifiers. Namely, that stories are not evidence "in this thread" and that stories (especially Biblical stories) are "weak" evidence versus "no" evidence.
Now, I have never known Zzyzx to claim "inerrancy" as a quality of what he writes on the forum. Thus, we can chalk up this alleged contradiction to a simple small mistake. The overall meaning that Zzyzx meant to convey however is pretty clear. He does not, nor does he think others should, take Biblical stories as evidence, particularly as evidence that Jesus was divine.
Let's consider an often argued Biblical contradiction.
Matthew in chapter 1 wrote: 15Eliud the father of Eleazar,
Eleazar the father of Matthan,
Matthan the father of Jacob,
16and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
Luke in chapter 3 wrote:23Now Jesus himself was about thirty years old when he began his ministry. He was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph,
the son of Heli, 24the son of Matthat,
the son of Levi, the son of Melki,
the son of Jannai, the son of Joseph,
25the son of Mattathias, the son of . . .
If we let P = "Jacob was Joseph's father, and Eleazar his great-grandfather"
and Q = "Heli was Joseph's father, and Levi his great-grandfather"
We have that P implies ~Q and Q implies ~P so that P and Q are clearly contradictory.
I would argue that this contradiction is clearly more substantive than the one cited by goose. After all, one could argue that "weak evidence" is pretty close to "no evidence" on a scale of "evidentiary strength." Both imply that the evidence is not to be relied upon, and that it is not compelling.
In addition, the contradiction cited by goose is quite explainable as a small mistake in wording, made on the rather ephemeral venue of an internet discussion forum.
The Biblical contradiction above appears in works that were copied by hand many hundreds or thousands of times. We can reasonably assume that they were the result of many many hours of work on the part of the authors, and that they would very likely have taken great great care in what they wrote.
In addition, it is pretty hard to consider the discrepancy between Matthew and Luke as merely one of "careless wording" or "slightly limiting the context" as the "in this thread" qualifier in Zzyzx's statement. Having entirely different individuals named as ones ancestors is a lot bigger difference than the difference between "no evidence" and "weak evidence". It is pretty hard to explain as "careless wording while writing on the fly."
I would ask if, since goose considers Zzyzx's statement to be a contradiction, if he is also willing to acknowledge that the Biblical passages above constitute a contradiction within the Bible?
Now, let me be clear on my own position. I do believe in God and do consider the Bible to be divinely inspired. However, I do not consider it inerrant and do not consider it to be authoritative evidence for many of the claims that it makes and that believers make on its basis. I do think it constitutes evidence for some types of claims, and am willing to accept it is stronger (or weaker) evidence for some claims than for others.
My personal view is that believers would be better off not insisting upon the doctrine of inerrancy. I do not think this doctrine is intellectually defensible, nor do I think it is theologically desirable.
" . . . the line separating good and evil passes, not through states, nor between classes, nor between political parties either, but right through every human heart . . . ." Alexander Solzhenitsyn