Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

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Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #1

Post by RedEye »

We all know the story of St. Paul's conversion on the road to Damascus. Most Christians accept this story as being a true vision or encounter with a celestial Jesus. But was it? What if it was only a manifestation of a medical condition? At least one researcher in Neuropsychology thinks that this could be the case:

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1032067/
  • Evidence is offered to suggest a neurological origin for Paul's ecstatic visions. Paul's physical state at the time of his conversion is discussed and related to these ecstatic experiences. It is postulated that both were manifestations of temporal lobe epilepsy.
In old Ireland, epilepsy was known as "Saint Paul's disease". The name points to the centuries-old assumption that the apostle suffered from epilepsy. So Christians themselves came to this conclusion based on hints in the epistles:
  • 2 Corinthians 12
    7 Therefore, in order to keep me from becoming conceited, I was given a thorn in my flesh, a messenger of Satan, to torment me. 8 Three times I pleaded with the Lord to take it away from me. 9 But he said to me, My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness. Therefore I will boast all the more gladly about my weaknesses, so that Christs power may rest on me. 10 That is why, for Christs sake, I delight in weaknesses, in insults, in hardships, in persecutions, in difficulties. For when I am weak, then I am strong.
Paul tells us that he has some despised physical affliction but doesn't name it. This is perhaps through shame because in ancient times people used to spit at epileptics, either out of disgust or in order to ward off what they thought to be the "contagious matter" (epilepsy as 'morbus insputatus': the illness at which one spits).
  • Galatians 4
    13 As you know, it was because of an illness that I first preached the gospel to you, 14 and even though my illness was a trial to you, you did not treat me with contempt or scorn.
Again Paul tells us that he suffers from some debilitating condition. How can we conclude that this condition must be a form of epilepsy? Let's look at his conversion "vision".
  • Acts 9
    3 As he neared Damascus on his journey, suddenly a light from heaven flashed around him. 4 He fell to the ground and heard a voice say to him, Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?
    5 Who are you, Lord? Saul asked.
    I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting, he replied. 6 Now get up and go into the city, and you will be told what you must do.
    7 The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but did not see anyone. 8 Saul got up from the ground, but when he opened his eyes he could see nothing. So they led him by the hand into Damascus. 9 For three days he was blind, and did not eat or drink anything.
This description has all the hallmarks of a temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) episode. Paul's sudden fall, the fact that he first lay motionless on the ground but was then able to get up unaided, led people very early on to suspect that this dramatic incident might have been caused by a grand mal seizure. In more recent times, this opinion has found support from the fact that sight impediment - including temporary blindness lasting from several hours to several days - has been observed as being a symptom or result of an epileptic seizure and has been mentioned in many case reports. Having visions of a religious nature are not uncommon in TLE episodes.

Another hint that Paul suffered from epilepsy is his complete disinterest in sex. This is a common symptom. Studies suggest that over half of men with epilepsy, and a third of women with epilepsy, say they have problems with sex. The most commonly reported problems for men are a reduced interest in sex, and getting and keeping an erection.

The above is not the only vision Paul tells us about. We also have:
  • 2 Corinthians 12
    1 I must go on boasting. Although there is nothing to be gained, I will go on to visions and revelations from the Lord. 2 I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not know"God knows. 3 And I know that this man"whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, but God knows" 4 was caught up to paradise and heard inexpressible things, things that no one is permitted to tell. 5 I will boast about a man like that, but I will not boast about myself, except about my weaknesses.
Obviously Paul is talking about himself here (but trying to be humble). The evidence is very strong that Paul's "visions" are simply the products of a brain condition that he suffered from but which was not treatable at the time. This means that what he saw was no more real than the episodes epileptics experience today before they are diagnosed and put on medication.

I don't think I need to argue that Paul kicked off what later became Christianity. He was responsible for most of the major doctrines which differentiated it from Judaism. The idea of a saviour Jesus came from him and later gospel authors fleshed Jesus out and gave him a back story. This means that without Paul we probably would not have the Christianity we know today. That begs the question. If Paul's visions were only manifestations of his lifetime brain illness, what does that say about the validity of the origins of Christianity?
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #41

Post by RedEye »

tam wrote: "I have never seen it, therefore it has never happened."
You are putting words into my mouth. This isn't what I stated nor is it my position.
This is not a good reason upon which to draw a conclusion.
Actually past experience is an excellent reason upon which to draw a conclusion. O:)
Yes really. A contradiction would be one account stating that they saw a light and the other account stating that they did not see a light (or that they saw nothing at all).
Or they saw nothing at all in which case there is no point saying anything about a light. (Just like there would be no need to mention that there was no strange smell in the air). My point is that if they had seen a blinding light from heaven then this would be a very, very noteworthy event. The fact that it is omitted tells us that they saw nothing --- hence the contradiction. There is also the contradiction between "voices" and "noise" which you have not addressed. The fact remains that the two accounts differ. Therefore we can't fully trust the details provided by an anonymous source purely on the basis of hearsay.
If I accepted the Acts 9 passage at face value (as you do despite your denials), how would I ever arrive at a conclusion other than a supernatural event? :shock:
I think you are proving my point.
If your point is that you always accept accounts of supernatural acts literally without critical thought, then yes I have proved your point.
Anyway, you have my approach all wrong. It's: Draw a reasoned conclusion from all of the available evidence first, examine each piece of evidence critically second. It's the "critical examination" part which you omit in favour of "just accept what the author is saying". You deny you do that, but my experience is that this is always your position and you defend it doggedly.
I have said that if you ignore the evidence that conflict with your theory, you can make up any theory you like.
I don't ignore the evidence and I take offense at that characterization. I filter the evidence through the reasoning part of my brain and decide what is plausible and what is implausible.
Witnesses disprove the hypothesis of epilepsy, so you dismiss that bit of evidence and state that Luke must have lied about that detail.
There are no eyewitnesses. What you have is the author of Luke/Acts telling us that there were witnesses and what they supposedly experienced. That is hearsay at best. Where did this anonymous author get his information? Do you know? If you don't then you are in no position to assert that the claims of the author are facts and we should uncritically accept them as evidence. No court would ever allow such "evidence".
If it was a TLE episode then no one else could have witnessed it because it was all in Paul's head. That is obvious. But stating that no one could have witnessed it because it was a TLE episode is circular.
Where did I make that statement? Please stop putting words into my mouth.
This wasn't a phone call. :?
Phones hadn't been invented yet. The only options are 1) in Paul's head (no sound waves) 2) audible sound waves in the air.
Of course it was not a phone call. It was simply an example of being able to hear a sound (even hear someone speaking) and yet not be able to make out what was being said at the same time. To show that this is indeed something that is possible.
Are you claiming that spirit Jesus was whispering in Paul's ear? :o
Assertion. Since Paul never uses the word "Christian" you cannot possibly know what he was referring to. I asked you for evidence of him persecuting Christians. These folk in the "church of God" could have been any of dozens of sects that existed at the time. Probably a community of gnostics would be my guess.
Your guess? Even though your guess is not based upon the evidence?
It is a plausible conclusion (some unknown sect) based on the text of the passage. Yours is the claim without evidence since you talk about "Christians" when the word is never used. I'm still waiting for your evidence.
Because that EVIDENCE (as shown in the rest of the passage) shows that Paul is referring to those in Christ.
That is the in the present tense (when Paul is writing). It has no relevance to the past at the time when this persecution allegedly occurred.
Focusing on the term "Christian" is just a distraction. Why would a man who is IN CHRIST consider some other group or religion to be the church of God.
Um, because that is how they referred to themselves? Or because they had come around to his novel beliefs on a Jesus and he didn't want to risk offending them by denigrating their previous position as ungodly? (Are you under the impression that the Jews of the time who practiced Judaism did not think of themselves as also being in the "church" of God?).
There's only one problem. Paul tells us that his gospel came to him from a spirit Jesus and did not come from any man. See verses 11-12. If he was preaching exactly the same thing that he had been persecuting then that claim is a lie.
First he persecuted faith in Christ. Then he preached faith in Christ.
That's not in any scripture. The "in Christ" refers to the present tense when Paul is writing. The word used is "are" not "were".
He did not learn (or receive) his faith from men, he learned (and received) from Christ Himself. That does not mean he did not know that a faith in Christ already existed.
Yes, it does. This is what Paul actually says:
  • Galatians 1
    11 I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
Paul is saying that no part of what he preached has a human origin. Paul preached of a dying/rising Jesus who was crucified and resurrected. If he was really persecuting Christ believers as you claim, then he must have known at least that much about them (otherwise what was he persecuting?). You can't persecute people without knowing what "heresy" they are committing. That would be absurd. If he knew that much about Jesus then this must have been taught to him by other men before his conversion. You have a blatant contradiction with his words in the verse above. Therefore he could not have been persecuting Christ believers.
Take your pick. My take on it is that what he was originally persecuting was a group of gnostics who had similar beliefs to Paul but he added on Jesus Christ to their "good god" (who was in opposition to the "inferior god" or Demiurge who created the corrupted world according to gnosticism). That is fully compatible with the passage you have quoted.
It is in direct conflict with the passage I quoted, since the people he claims to have been persecuting were already IN CHRIST.
Already refuted above. Therefore my position is still fully compatible.
Also another interpolation (almost word for word lifted straight from Luke 22) and off-topic to this thread.
I'm sorry, are you saying that "Luke" was written before Corinthians?
No. You don't know what an interpolation is? It is something which has been added to the original text at a later date by another scribe when copying a parchment. In this case someone added text to 1 Cor from Luke for the purpose of inserting human Jesus into Paul's writings.

I'm sorry but "no" is not an argument. (This is what I mean about you failing to acknowledge it when a passage in scripture goes against you).
Lol, you said "Yes or no". I simply answered in the parameters you gave me. I had previously elaborated that Paul was not referring to himself in that passage.
Okay, fair enough. Now give us the reasons for your "no" answer (because I didn't expect this response). If you don't believe me on why your answer should have been "yes" then try any Bible commentary:

https://www.christianity.com/bible/comm ... &b=47&c=12
https://biblehub.com/commentaries/2_cor ... s/12-2.htm
https://enduringword.com/bible-commenta ... thians-12/
  • Paul describes this experience in the third person instead of the first person (he didnt say, I myself had this experience). This makes some wonder if he is really speaking about himself here, or if he speaks of someone else. But because he transitions into the first person in verse seven, we may be assured that he really writes about himself.
Yes, I have. He was unmarried and a sexual ascetic who advised others (male and female) to follow his lead. Someone with an interest in sex would probably not be such a passionate advocate for single-minded devotion to God.

Probably?
Yes, that is how conclusions are drawn from ancient texts --- on the preponderance of the evidence. If your position is "the text must state that Paul had no interest in women" then that is just you setting an impossible bar for evidence. I have lost patience with explaining this endlessly. If something is not literally stated in the text, then you label it "mere speculation" and dismiss it out of hand. I have no further interest if this is how you are going to continue to debate. The point is not that I am certain that Paul was asexual and it was a result of epilepsy. The point is that this is another indicator which is consistent with Paul suffering from epilepsy. On its own it would not be a strong sub-argument. Taken in conjunction with all the other hints we get from the text, it lends weight to the overall conclusion. That is how an argument is mounted.
Verse 3. The pair of words "received / delivered" (paralambanein / paradidonai) is technical language for the handing on of rabbinical tradition. That means a human source.
That is one way in which the word is used, but not the only way:

[/url]https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/le ... 3880&t=KJV[/url]

B - to receive with the mind
i - by oral transmission: of the authors from whom the tradition proceeds
ii - by the narrating to others, by instruction of teachers (used of disciples)
I have snipped to show only the relevant definition in context and I agree. This is about handing on of rabbinical tradition, as I said. Thank you.
A - Christ is a Teacher (a rabbi); the Teacher, from whom Paul claims to have learned.
No, Paul never states this. You are getting it from the gospels which came later. Paul never refers to Jesus as a teacher (rabbi). Nor was Paul "taught" by Jesus.
  • Galatians 1
    12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
He received it by revelation. Therefore the 1 Cor 15:3 verse directly contradicts what Paul said in Gal 1:12.
B - Please also note that this is also the exact same word used when Paul states that he "received" from the Lord, in 1 Corinthians 11:23.
Please note that this is also an interpolation as I have already pointed out.
I also believe that his vision occurred, so I have no argument with you on that. Just on the cause.
You accept that the cause was supernatural at face value and your evidence for this is that you implicitly believe what the Bible says.
I said nothing of the sort. I simply stated that I had no argument with your position that Paul had an actual vision - since I believe the same - and that we simply disagree on the cause. I did not state "I believe" as evidence of anything.
But your alternative cause is the supernatural, is it not? It follows you believe that Jesus had a supernatural vision of Jesus. So where does that belief come from? It can only come from a literal reading of the text and your faith that every single word is true. Therefore your evidence for this event (vision) being supernatural is "I believe". Where is the error in my reasoning?
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Post #42

Post by RedEye »

Tart wrote: If Christianity was a result of Paul. That the risen Christ was just a figment of Paul's imagination...

What about all the others, that Paul spoke of in 1 Corinthians 15

3 For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance[a]: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 5 and that he appeared to Cephas, and then to the Twelve. 6 After that, he appeared to more than five hundred of the brothers and sisters at the same time, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. 7 Then he appeared to James, then to all the apostles, 8 and last of all he appeared to me also, as to one abnormally born.

Wouldnt this suggest Paul was the last person who experienced the risen Christ out of hundreds of others? Over a dozen of which we know the identities of, who also collaborated about the Risen Christ in other written letters.


See post #30 where I explained (and provided evidence) why this is a later interpolation to the text.

ref:Re:%20Is%20Christianity%20Just%20The%20Result%20Of%20One%20Man's%20Illness?
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #43

Post by tam »

Peace to you redeye,
This is not a good reason upon which to draw a conclusion.
Actually past experience is an excellent reason upon which to draw a conclusion. O:)
Your past experience with me is very limited.

I'm skipping some things in the effort to move forward. We seem to differ on the meaning of contradiction though:

(of people) to state the opposite of what someone has said, or (of one fact or statement) to be so different from another fact or statement that one of them must be wrong:

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictio ... contradict


A contradiction is two propositions used in combination where one makes the other impossible.

https://www.urbandictionary.com/define. ... tradiction

Witnesses disprove the hypothesis of epilepsy, so you dismiss that bit of evidence and state that Luke must have lied about that detail.
There are no eyewitnesses. What you have is the author of Luke/Acts telling us that there were witnesses and what they supposedly experienced. That is hearsay at best. Where did this anonymous author get his information? Do you know? If you don't then you are in no position to assert that the claims of the author are facts and we should uncritically accept them as evidence. No court would ever allow such "evidence".
And yet Acts is your only source of the details of Paul's vision: the light, the vision, falling down, temporary blindness. If Acts is mere hearsay with regard to the two witnesses, then Acts is mere hearsay with regard to those details that you are relying upon to suggest epilepsy.


And it is more than that. Not only do you dismiss the two witnesses (who refute the possibility that this was all in Paul's head), you also dismiss the preaching of Christ by the other apostles before Paul, as recorded in that book; you dismiss all the testimony in that book about all the others who were disciples of Christ before Paul even came on the scene.


You are casting doubt on your own (and only) piece of evidence because that evidence also refutes your conclusion.

Assertion. Since Paul never uses the word "Christian" you cannot possibly know what he was referring to. I asked you for evidence of him persecuting Christians. These folk in the "church of God" could have been any of dozens of sects that existed at the time. Probably a community of gnostics would be my guess.
Your guess? Even though your guess is not based upon the evidence?
It is a plausible conclusion (some unknown sect) based on the text of the passage. Yours is the claim without evidence since you talk about "Christians" when the word is never used. I'm still waiting for your evidence.
Just because the word Christian was not being used does not mean that the people this word describes did not exist before that time.

The apostles were Christian (anointed ones) from the moment Christ anointed them with holy spirit (from the moment He breathed holy spirit upon them). People also followed Christ before being called Christian.

Paul states that he persecuted the followers of the Way. That Way was Christ: "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life".

Paul persecuted those who followed Christ, but who called themselves followers of the Way.
Because that EVIDENCE (as shown in the rest of the passage) shows that Paul is referring to those in Christ.
That is the in the present tense (when Paul is writing). It has no relevance to the past at the time when this persecution allegedly occurred.
Let's look at the passage then:

I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.

For you have heard of my previous way of life in Judaism, how intensely I persecuted the church of God and tried to destroy it. I was advancing in Judaism beyond many of my own age among my people and was extremely zealous for the traditions of my fathers. But when God, who set me apart from my mothers womb and called me by his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son in me so that I might preach him among the Gentiles, my immediate response was not to consult any human being. I did not go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before I was, but I went into Arabia. Later I returned to Damascus.



Okay, so right there, Paul refers to those who were apostles BEFORE he was an apostle. He then names some of those apostles who would have been BEFORE him:

Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Cephas and stayed with him fifteen days. I saw none of the other apostles"only James, the Lords brother. I assure you before God that what I am writing you is no lie.


Continuing:

Then I went to Syria and Cilicia. I was personally unknown to the churches of Judea that are in Christ. They only heard the report: The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy. And they praised God because of me.



What is the faith that Paul "is now preaching"? How could Paul be preaching the faith that he once tried to destroy, if that faith did not exist before Paul invented it?


He did not learn (or receive) his faith from men, he learned (and received) from Christ Himself. That does not mean he did not know that a faith in Christ already existed.
Yes, it does. This is what Paul actually says:
  • Galatians 1
    11 I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
Paul is saying that no part of what he preached has a human origin.
That is because Paul learned from Christ. After seeing and hearing Christ, Paul did not consult with the apostles who came before him; he immediately set out as Christ sent him. If Paul had listened to men and believed them, then the gospel he preached would have to be said to have had human origin. Instead Paul did not accept the teachings of men. He received the gospel by revelation from Christ.


(btw - the word 'received' above, is the same word paralamban, which you said refers only to receiving from a rabbi; a human source; etc. Yet here it is referring to Paul having received from Christ)

Also another interpolation (almost word for word lifted straight from Luke 22) and off-topic to this thread.
I'm sorry, are you saying that "Luke" was written before Corinthians?
No. You don't know what an interpolation is? It is something which has been added to the original text at a later date by another scribe when copying a parchment. In this case someone added text to 1 Cor from Luke for the purpose of inserting human Jesus into Paul's writings.
When do you believe this insertion happened? Ball park?
I'm sorry but "no" is not an argument. (This is what I mean about you failing to acknowledge it when a passage in scripture goes against you).
Lol, you said "Yes or no". I simply answered in the parameters you gave me. I had previously elaborated that Paul was not referring to himself in that passage.
Okay, fair enough. Now give us the reasons for your "no" answer (because I didn't expect this response). If you don't believe me on why your answer should have been "yes" then try any Bible commentary:

https://www.christianity.com/bible/comm ... &b=47&c=12
https://biblehub.com/commentaries/2_cor ... s/12-2.htm
https://enduringword.com/bible-commenta ... thians-12/
  • Paul describes this experience in the third person instead of the first person (he didnt say, I myself had this experience). This makes some wonder if he is really speaking about himself here, or if he speaks of someone else. But because he transitions into the first person in verse seven, we may be assured that he really writes about himself.
Paul does much more than simply not say "I myself had this experience". He says that he is not boasting about himself, but about some other man.

I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of it I do not know, but God knows. And I know that this man"whether in the body or out of it I do not know, but God knows" was caught up into Paradise. The things he heard were too sacred for words, things that man is not permitted to tell. I will boast about a man like that, but I will not boast about myself, except about my weaknesses . Even if I should choose to boast, I would not be a fool, because I would be speaking the truth. But I refrain, so no one will think more of me than is warranted by what I do or say..."


He begins by saying that he must continue boasting (not about himself, except his weaknesses). He then says that he will go on to visions and revelations. (This is visions and revelations in general, not just his own visions and revelations.) He then speaks about a specific vision another man had (since he will not boast about himself, except his weaknesses). When we come to verse 7 he is speaking in general about his own visions and revelations, leading into his comments about the 'thorn in his flesh'.
Verse 3. The pair of words "received / delivered" (paralambanein / paradidonai) is technical language for the handing on of rabbinical tradition. That means a human source.
That is one way in which the word is used, but not the only way:

[/url]https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/le ... 3880&t=KJV[/url]

B - to receive with the mind
i - by oral transmission: of the authors from whom the tradition proceeds
ii - by the narrating to others, by instruction of teachers (used of disciples)
I have snipped to show only the relevant definition in context and I agree. This is about handing on of rabbinical tradition, as I said. Thank you.
So you have dismissed the evidence that does not support your view.

B - Please also note that this is also the exact same word used when Paul states that he "received" from the Lord, in 1 Corinthians 11:23.
Please note that this is also an interpolation as I have already pointed out.
Even if that were true, it makes absolutely NO difference to the point that this word 'received' is being used in conjunction with having received something from Christ.

The meaning of the word does not change even if the scribe changes.

(regardless, this is the same word used also in the Galatians example that I shared above)

I also believe that his vision occurred, so I have no argument with you on that. Just on the cause.
You accept that the cause was supernatural at face value and your evidence for this is that you implicitly believe what the Bible says.
I said nothing of the sort. I simply stated that I had no argument with your position that Paul had an actual vision - since I believe the same - and that we simply disagree on the cause. I did not state "I believe" as evidence of anything.
But your alternative cause is the supernatural, is it not? It follows you believe that Jesus had a supernatural vision of Jesus. So where does that belief come from? It can only come from a literal reading of the text and your faith that every single word is true. Therefore your evidence for this event (vision) being supernatural is "I believe". Where is the error in my reasoning?

I think you're going to have to tell me where the error in your reasoning originated, because I do not know what you are continuing on about. The point of my statement was simply to agree with you on the vision having happened, but disagree with you on the cause. As a summary OF our positions (not as evidence FOR our positions).


I think we should chalk this part of our exchange up to a simple misunderstanding and move on from it.


Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #44

Post by RedEye »

tam wrote: Your past experience with me is very limited.
It's enough to draw a conclusion. ;)
We seem to differ on the meaning of contradiction though:
I have explained the contradictions at length. Since you don't address them then I can only assume that you now concede them.
There are no eyewitnesses. What you have is the author of Luke/Acts telling us that there were witnesses and what they supposedly experienced. That is hearsay at best. Where did this anonymous author get his information? Do you know? If you don't then you are in no position to assert that the claims of the author are facts and we should uncritically accept them as evidence. No court would ever allow such "evidence".
And yet Acts is your only source of the details of Paul's vision: the light, the vision, falling down, temporary blindness. If Acts is mere hearsay with regard to the two witnesses, then Acts is mere hearsay with regard to those details that you are relying upon to suggest epilepsy.
The problem is your black and white approach. According to you either the Acts testimony is worthless or every single word is true. There is no middle ground for you. Some of us don't operate that way.
Not only do you dismiss the two witnesses (who refute the possibility that this was all in Paul's head), ...
I'm not sure what you fail to understand. There are no witnesses. What we have from the author of Luke/Acts is a claim that there were witnesses. These two things are not the same.
[quoteIt is a plausible conclusion (some unknown sect) based on the text of the passage. Yours is the claim without evidence since you talk about "Christians" when the word is never used. I'm still waiting for your evidence.
Just because the word Christian was not being used does not mean that the people this word describes did not exist before that time.
No, it doesn't, but it gives us a very strong reason to doubt it. You made the claim about Christians. I think you are now admitting that you can't support it.
The apostles were Christian (anointed ones) from the moment Christ anointed them with holy spirit (from the moment He breathed holy spirit upon them).
This is not from Paul so this is you engaging in a retro-fitting exercise.
People also followed Christ before being called Christian.
That has nothing to do with my request for evidence.
Paul states that he persecuted the followers of the Way. That Way was Christ: "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life". Paul persecuted those who followed Christ, but who called themselves followers of the Way.
That's from Acts. I distinctly remember asking for evidence from Paul's own authentic writings.
That is the in the present tense (when Paul is writing). It has no relevance to the past at the time when this persecution allegedly occurred. The "in Christ" refers to the present tense when Paul is writing. The word used is "are" not "were".
Let's look at the passage then:
The relevant verse is Galatians 1:22 so I'm not sure why you have quoted something else entirely.
Okay, so right there, Paul refers to those who were apostles BEFORE he was an apostle. He then names some of those apostles who would have been BEFORE him:
Yes, but apostles of what exactly? Why do you assume things that are not stated in the text?
What is the faith that Paul "is now preaching"? How could Paul be preaching the faith that he once tried to destroy, if that faith did not exist before Paul invented it?
I have already addressed this previously. It was probably some gnostic sect. Why are you raising the same question which I have already answered comprehensively (and you abandoned)?
Yes, it does. This is what Paul actually says:
  • Galatians 1
    11 I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
Paul is saying that no part of what he preached has a human origin. Paul preached of a dying/rising Jesus who was crucified and resurrected. If he was really persecuting Christ believers as you claim, then he must have known at least that much about them (otherwise what was he persecuting?). You can't persecute people without knowing what "heresy" they are committing. That would be absurd. If he knew that much about Jesus then this must have been taught to him by other men before his conversion. You have a blatant contradiction with his words in the verse above. Therefore he could not have been persecuting Christ believers.
That is because Paul learned from Christ.
You're confused. We are discussing the period before Paul's conversion. Since you fail to address my argument I can only assume that you concede it.
(btw - the word 'received' above, is the same word paralamban, which you said refers only to receiving from a rabbi; a human source; etc. Yet here it is referring to Paul having received from Christ).
Yes but it is qualified immediately after to say that the knowledge came by revelation which rules out the usual meaning of the word. In context it falls back to "receive with the mind". That should be obvious.
No. You don't know what an interpolation is? It is something which has been added to the original text at a later date by another scribe when copying a parchment. In this case someone added text to 1 Cor from Luke for the purpose of inserting human Jesus into Paul's writings.
When do you believe this insertion happened? Ball park?
Some time in the 2nd century (after Acts was in circulation obviously). How is the date relevant?
Okay, fair enough. Now give us the reasons for your "no" answer (because I didn't expect this response). If you don't believe me on why your answer should have been "yes" then try any Bible commentary:
Paul does much more than simply not say "I myself had this experience". He says that he is not boasting about himself, but about some other man.
And the commentaries I linked to explain why. This is tiresome. I don't care if you don't accept Biblical scholarship on this. Let the gentle readers decide for themselves who is right.
I have snipped to show only the relevant definition in context and I agree. This is about handing on of rabbinical tradition, as I said. Thank you.
So you have dismissed the evidence that does not support your view.
No. I take offense at this characterization of me too. I snipped for the reason I explained. You even seemed to agree with me up above.
No, Paul never states this. You are getting it from the gospels which came later. Paul never refers to Jesus as a teacher (rabbi). Nor was Paul "taught" by Jesus.
  • Galatians 1
    12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.
He received it by revelation. Therefore the 1 Cor 15:3 verse directly contradicts what Paul said in Gal 1:12.
I'll take your lack of response as a concession on this point.
Please note that this is also an interpolation as I have already pointed out.
Even if that were true, it makes absolutely NO difference to the point that this word 'received' is being used in conjunction with having received something from Christ.
Yes, in a vision. I have never argued that it didn't come from a spirit Jesus in a vision. :?
The meaning of the word does not change even if the scribe changes.
Yes, but if the author was not Paul then it's fake and it can have no bearing on whether Paul received knowledge from Jesus in a teacher/rabbi situation. :? :?
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Post #45

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RedEye wrote:
Tart wrote: If Christianity was a result of Paul. That the risen Christ was just a figment of Paul's imagination...

What about all the others, that Paul spoke of in 1 Corinthians 15

3 For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance[a]: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 5 and that he appeared to Cephas, and then to the Twelve. 6 After that, he appeared to more than five hundred of the brothers and sisters at the same time, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. 7 Then he appeared to James, then to all the apostles, 8 and last of all he appeared to me also, as to one abnormally born.

Wouldnt this suggest Paul was the last person who experienced the risen Christ out of hundreds of others? Over a dozen of which we know the identities of, who also collaborated about the Risen Christ in other written letters.


See post #30 where I explained (and provided evidence) why this is a later interpolation to the text.

ref:Re:%20Is%20Christianity%20Just%20The%20Result%20Of%20One%20Man's%20Illness?



Here is a part of post 30 when you talk of this issue..

It's actually lifted straight from Acts. It's yet another later interpolation. "The stubborn fact remains: in Galatians Paul tells his readers that what he preached to them when he founded their church was not taught him by human predecessors. In 1 Cor 15 he is depicted as telling his readers that what he preached to them when he founded their church was taught him by human predecessors". That's a direct contradiction.

http://historical-jesus.info/9.html

The "Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures" gives the game away. What scriptures could Paul know about that had Christ dying for our sins? They hadn't been written yet! (This is also off-topic though and I won't respond further to this side issue).


Is that all the evidence and reasoning you have that this was added to the text later?

Paul's conversion was something that he believed was a divine act. I think you even recognize that Paul believed he really met the Risen Christ, you just say it is an epileptic episode... Thus, why couldnt we conclude that Paul is talking about that? An act from God, is how Paul converted, not from men.

Also, couldnt "Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures" be referencing the Messiah in the Old Testament?

Is this really how you determine if something in Paul's Epistles was added in later? Because, the only evidence you are giving is that it is a contradiction (of how you interpret it)...

I dont think it is a contradiction, why would I have to believe it was added later?

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Post #46

Post by tam »

Peace to you Tart,

[Replying to post 45 by Tart]
Also, couldnt "Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures" be referencing the Messiah in the Old Testament?

Yes, this is exactly what Paul is referencing! Thank you for bringing that back up since the response to it had gone ignored.


Peace again to you.

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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #47

Post by tam »

Peace to you,

We seem to differ on the meaning of contradiction though:
I have explained the contradictions at length. Since you don't address them then I can only assume that you now concede them.
I did address them by providing the definition of the word contradiction. What you explained were not contradictions. (and I will let you know if I am conceding a point; there is no need to resort to assumptions)

There are no eyewitnesses. What you have is the author of Luke/Acts telling us that there were witnesses and what they supposedly experienced. That is hearsay at best. Where did this anonymous author get his information? Do you know? If you don't then you are in no position to assert that the claims of the author are facts and we should uncritically accept them as evidence. No court would ever allow such "evidence".
And yet Acts is your only source of the details of Paul's vision: the light, the vision, falling down, temporary blindness. If Acts is mere hearsay with regard to the two witnesses, then Acts is mere hearsay with regard to those details that you are relying upon to suggest epilepsy.
The problem is your black and white approach. According to you either the Acts testimony is worthless or every single word is true. There is no middle ground for you. Some of us don't operate that way.
And you have not demonstrated that the two witnesses were invented by Luke here at the start of Acts and again later when Luke records Paul's testimony to the crowd.

If you accept that Paul had a vision and went blind, do you also suppose that he made it from the desert to Damascus on his own?

Do you also suppose that Luke was lying that the Lord sent Ananias to Paul?

Do you also suppose that Luke was lying about the following words from Paul?

Lord, I answered, they know very well that in one synagogue after another I imprisoned and beat those who believed in You. And when the blood of Your witness Stephen was shed, I stood there giving my approval and watching over the garments of those who killed him.


In this Paul admits that he persecuted those who believed in Christ, including Stephen.

Even the words 'Saul Saul why do you persecute me' do not make sense without there existing a Christ and people who belonged to Him, to persecute.



I see no middle ground approach, Redeye. Not when you dismiss almost all of what is recorded in Acts except for those few details that you accept as support for the epilepsy theory: the vision, the light, the blindness, and the falling.


That is the in the present tense (when Paul is writing). It has no relevance to the past at the time when this persecution allegedly occurred. The "in Christ" refers to the present tense when Paul is writing. The word used is "are" not "were".
Let's look at the passage then:
The relevant verse is Galatians 1:22 so I'm not sure why you have quoted something else entirely.
I am still quoting from Galatians 1. I was just showing you something more.
Okay, so right there, Paul refers to those who were apostles BEFORE he was an apostle. He then names some of those apostles who would have been BEFORE him:
Yes, but apostles of what exactly? Why do you assume things that are not stated in the text?
Why do YOU?

You assume that Paul was uninterested in sex. The text never makes such a statement. You assume that Paul was persecuting some unknown gnostic sect (probably), but the text never makes such a statement.

On the other hand, we have countless texts stating that there were apostles and disciples of Christ before Paul. Some of those texts are from Paul, most from others who also wrote about that time.

What is the faith that Paul "is now preaching"? How could Paul be preaching the faith that he once tried to destroy, if that faith did not exist before Paul invented it?
I have already addressed this previously. It was probably some gnostic sect. Why are you raising the same question which I have already answered comprehensively (and you abandoned)?
Because you keep missing the point and you did not answer the question:

What is the faith that Paul "is NOW preaching"?

Because THAT is the faith that he formerly persecuted.

One need only read the intro in his letters to see that the faith he preached is Christ. That is the faith that he formerly persecuted.


Simple.

Okay, fair enough. Now give us the reasons for your "no" answer (because I didn't expect this response). If you don't believe me on why your answer should have been "yes" then try any Bible commentary:
Paul does much more than simply not say "I myself had this experience". He says that he is not boasting about himself, but about some other man.
And the commentaries I linked to explain why. This is tiresome. I don't care if you don't accept Biblical scholarship on this. Let the gentle readers decide for themselves who is right.
So do you expect me to simply accept the biblical commentaries, even though you do not hold yourself to that same standard? Or are you going to tell me that biblical scholarship and commentaries state that Paul invented Christ, and that no one had heard of Christ before Paul's vision?




**

(I may save the discussion about the word 'received' for its own post)



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Post #48

Post by RedEye »

Tart wrote:
RedEye wrote: See post #30 where I explained (and provided evidence) why this is a later interpolation to the text.

ref:Re:%20Is%20Christianity%20Just%20The%20Result%20Of%20One%20Man's%20Illness?
Here is a part of post 30 when you talk of this issue..
It's actually lifted straight from Acts. It's yet another later interpolation. "The stubborn fact remains: in Galatians Paul tells his readers that what he preached to them when he founded their church was not taught him by human predecessors. In 1 Cor 15 he is depicted as telling his readers that what he preached to them when he founded their church was taught him by human predecessors". That's a direct contradiction.

http://historical-jesus.info/9.html

The "Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures" gives the game away. What scriptures could Paul know about that had Christ dying for our sins? They hadn't been written yet! (This is also off-topic though and I won't respond further to this side issue).
Is that all the evidence and reasoning you have that this was added to the text later?
No. There was more in subsequent posts as Tammy asked pertinent questions. I suggest you read them so that I don't have to repeat myself.
Paul's conversion was something that he believed was a divine act. I think you even recognize that Paul believed he really met the Risen Christ, you just say it is an epileptic episode... Thus, why couldnt we conclude that Paul is talking about that? An act from God, is how Paul converted, not from men.
I do agree (but not an act from God --- his delusion of an experience with God/Jesus). The point is that the 1 Cor 15 passage contradicts this. That makes it a likely later interpolation not authored by Paul.
Also, couldnt "Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures" be referencing the Messiah in the Old Testament?
What? Was there a messiah who died for our sins in the OT? :?
Is this really how you determine if something in Paul's Epistles was added in later? Because, the only evidence you are giving is that it is a contradiction (of how you interpret it)...
It's not just how I interpret it. I am making an argument and you are offering no other explanation for the contradiction.
I dont think it is a contradiction, why would I have to believe it was added later?
If you don't think it is a contradiction then go ahead and explain how Paul could have received his gospel from "no man" according to Galatians 1 (it was a revelation) but received it from human teachers in 1 Corinthians 15 according to the words used there. Go ahead.
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #49

Post by RedEye »

tam wrote: (and I will let you know if I am conceding a point; there is no need to resort to assumptions)
If I am still arguing a point and you stop, then you implicitly concede that point. That is how debating works.
The problem is your black and white approach. According to you either the Acts testimony is worthless or every single word is true. There is no middle ground for you. Some of us don't operate that way.
And you have not demonstrated that the two witnesses were invented by Luke here at the start of Acts and again later when Luke records Paul's testimony to the crowd.
You misunderstand. He may have had companions almost certainly (traveling alone was dangerous). What I am questioning is what they were witnesses to. You can't claim eyewitnesses to something on the basis of hearsay.
In this Paul admits that he persecuted those who believed in Christ, including Stephen.
I keep telling you that I don't necessarily accept Acts as being reliable (as opposed to Paul's authentic writings). We have been through this at length. Yet here you are quoting me things from Acts.
I see no middle ground approach, Redeye. Not when you dismiss almost all of what is recorded in Acts except for those few details that you accept as support for the epilepsy theory: the vision, the light, the blindness, and the falling.
What are you having trouble with? That one small part of a story can have a core basis in reality (being supported by Paul's own writings where he admits to having had such an experience but without much detail) whilst the rest of the story is fabrication? Why is that a difficult concept for you?
That is the in the present tense (when Paul is writing). It has no relevance to the past at the time when this persecution allegedly occurred. The "in Christ" refers to the present tense when Paul is writing. The word used is "are" not "were".
Let's look at the passage then:
The relevant verse is Galatians 1:22 so I'm not sure why you have quoted something else entirely.
I am still quoting from Galatians 1. I was just showing you something more.
Then by going off on some unrelated tangent you must have once again conceded the point I was making above. Thank you.
Okay, so right there, Paul refers to those who were apostles BEFORE he was an apostle. He then names some of those apostles who would have been BEFORE him:
Yes, but apostles of what exactly? Why do you assume things that are not stated in the text?
Why do YOU?
What have I assumed about these apostles?
On the other hand, we have countless texts stating that there were apostles and disciples of Christ before Paul. Some of those texts are from Paul, most from others who also wrote about that time.
No, we don't have any such texts. (The gospels were written many decades later). Assertions without evidence can be dismissed without evidence.
What is the faith that Paul "is now preaching"? How could Paul be preaching the faith that he once tried to destroy, if that faith did not exist before Paul invented it?
I have already addressed this previously. It was probably some gnostic sect. Why are you raising the same question which I have already answered comprehensively (and you abandoned)?
Because you keep missing the point and you did not answer the question:

What is the faith that Paul "is NOW preaching"?
I have answered that question previously (a form of gnosticism). You are not hearing the answer. I do not intend to go around in circles forever. See post #32.
So do you expect me to simply accept the biblical commentaries, even though you do not hold yourself to that same standard?
As I said, I don't care if you accept them or not. I have made my arguments and you have made yours. You won't accept authority (from your own side even!). Let the gentle readers decide who is being reasonable and who cannot face the consequences of what their scripture is saying.
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Re: Is Christianity Just The Result Of One Man's Illness?

Post #50

Post by tam »

Peace to you,
RedEye wrote:
tam wrote: (and I will let you know if I am conceding a point; there is no need to resort to assumptions)
If I am still arguing a point and you stop, then you implicitly concede that point. That is how debating works.
I do not think that is a real rule, but even if it is, this is not formal debate. People here stop responding to specific points for other reasons (such as when it gets to the point that one will simply be repeating themselves again or when the same point is made in more than one place in a lengthy post).

But according to your rules, I assume that you conceded this point:

I did address them by providing the definition of the word contradiction. What you explained were not contradictions.

The problem is your black and white approach. According to you either the Acts testimony is worthless or every single word is true. There is no middle ground for you. Some of us don't operate that way.
And you have not demonstrated that the two witnesses were invented by Luke here at the start of Acts and again later when Luke records Paul's testimony to the crowd.
You misunderstand. He may have had companions almost certainly (traveling alone was dangerous). What I am questioning is what they were witnesses to. You can't claim eyewitnesses to something on the basis of hearsay.
Yes, he may have had companions that did not see or hear anything. You must assume then that Luke or a scribe lied. That is the only way your theory has even a chance of working. (of course if the author or a scribe lied, you would think they would list all the same details in each account of the same book)


I find it inconsistent that you mistrust Luke regarding the two companions witnessing the event (as well as all the writings from him about the apostles of Christ who preached Christ before Paul), but you do trust Luke on the details of Paul's vision (the falling, the light, the blindness). Paul does not reference those details in his own writings. Does Paul even mention the road to Damascus vision in his letters at all?

In this Paul admits that he persecuted those who believed in Christ, including Stephen.
I keep telling you that I don't necessarily accept Acts as being reliable (as opposed to Paul's authentic writings). We have been through this at length. Yet here you are quoting me things from Acts.
Where does Paul reference this vision of Christ on the road to Damascus in his own letters? Where does Paul reference the details of that vision (the falling, the blindness, the light)? What corroboration do you have from one of Paul's authentic letters about that vision and its details?


I see no middle ground approach, Redeye. Not when you dismiss almost all of what is recorded in Acts except for those few details that you accept as support for the epilepsy theory: the vision, the light, the blindness, and the falling.
What are you having trouble with?


The inconsistent approaches; the rejection of everything else in the very book that you present as evidence for your theory. I'm pretty sure that would not hold up in court (as you said to me earlier).
That one small part of a story can have a core basis in reality (being supported by Paul's own writings where he admits to having had such an experience but without much detail) whilst the rest of the story is fabrication? Why is that a difficult concept for you?
That is not a difficult concept to understand, but you have provided only assertions (and no evidence) to support your hypothesis. And your approach in determining what to accept and what to reject is inconsistent. You use one set of reasoning when it works in your favor but reject that same reasoning when it works against you.

For example: according to you, different details of the same account mean contradiction. That is what you said about the accounts with the two traveling companions, and you gave that as a reason to dismiss them as reliable accounts. So if Paul did not add those details in his own letters, then his account contradicts with Luke's, and at least one of them must be false. Yet you accept the account from Luke, rather than from Paul.

(I do not agree with that, btw. But this is the kind of reasoning you are using)

Were you conceding this point, btw?

Even the words 'Saul Saul why do you persecute me' do not make sense without there existing a Christ and a people who belonged to Christ, for Paul to persecute.


There is much evidence that shows that Christ (and belief in Him) existed before Paul had his vision. Your only response to that (that I have seen) is to say that this makes the Corinthians verse about how/where Paul learned, a contradiction. There is no contradiction, but even if there were a contradiction for the sake of argument, so what? There is still a vast amount of evidence that shows Christ existed before Paul had his vision.


That is the in the present tense (when Paul is writing). It has no relevance to the past at the time when this persecution allegedly occurred. The "in Christ" refers to the present tense when Paul is writing. The word used is "are" not "were".
Let's look at the passage then:
The relevant verse is Galatians 1:22 so I'm not sure why you have quoted something else entirely.
I am still quoting from Galatians 1. I was just showing you something more.
Then by going off on some unrelated tangent you must have once again conceded the point I was making above. Thank you.
It was not an unrelated tangent. I was trying to provide the whole picture for context. I will admit that by the translation you used, it is possible to interpret this verse (take on its own) as you stated.

That being said of course, that verse is translated as both 'are in Christ' and 'were in Christ', depending upon which translation one chooses to use.

https://biblehub.com/galatians/1-22.htm


However, the faith that Paul is now preaching (which he formerly persecuted) is faith in Christ. How you can deny that is beyond me.


But here is a little bit more from Paul:

Greet Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen and my fellow prisoners. They are well known to the apostles, and they were in Christ before me.

Romans 16:7

Okay, so right there, Paul refers to those who were apostles BEFORE he was an apostle. He then names some of those apostles who would have been BEFORE him:
Yes, but apostles of what exactly? Why do you assume things that are not stated in the text?
Why do YOU?
What have I assumed about these apostles?
Did I say you had assumed something about these apostles?

I asked why you assumed things that are not in the text. You did not quote those things that I asked you about.

I answered your question. You did not answer mine.
On the other hand, we have countless texts stating that there were apostles and disciples of Christ before Paul. Some of those texts are from Paul, most from others who also wrote about that time.
No, we don't have any such texts. (The gospels were written many decades later). Assertions without evidence can be dismissed without evidence.
The gospels are indeed texts that state this; Acts is a text that states this.

Paul's letters also speak of apostles and disciples of Christ before him. Such as the one quoted to you above, and the other from Corinthians.

What is the faith that Paul "is now preaching"? How could Paul be preaching the faith that he once tried to destroy, if that faith did not exist before Paul invented it?
I have already addressed this previously. It was probably some gnostic sect. Why are you raising the same question which I have already answered comprehensively (and you abandoned)?
Because you keep missing the point and you did not answer the question:

What is the faith that Paul "is NOW preaching"?
I have answered that question previously (a form of gnosticism).


So why are you assuming something that is not in the text? Especially when Paul clearly states on numerous occasions that the faith he preaches is Christ?

You are not hearing the answer. I do not intend to go around in circles forever. See post #32.
Oh, I hear your answer. It is a denial of what Paul clearly states because to admit otherwise, would disprove your claim.
So do you expect me to simply accept the biblical commentaries, even though you do not hold yourself to that same standard?
As I said, I don't care if you accept them or not. I have made my arguments and you have made yours.


You have made your arguments and feel no need to repeat them? See, this (and not concession) is often a reason that someone ceases to respond to a specific point.
You won't accept authority (from your own side even!).


The side that I am on is the side of the Truth (Christ), and He is my authority.

It is absurd for you to suggest that I must accept everything that comes in the form of a biblical commentary or from a biblical scholar. They do not even agree with one another, but I must accept all that they say and cannot even argue it? You must know that this is absurd.

Let the gentle readers decide who is being reasonable and who cannot face the consequences of what their scripture is saying.
What consequence?

There is no consequence to me or my faith; I already accept that Paul had visions and revelations, so it would be no big deal to add in the one he is speaking about from another man (being caught up to the third heaven). Even if it were from him (for the sake of argument) it is not the vision of Christ that he had on the road to Damascus.

So what exactly do you think the consequences would be to me and my faith if Paul was referring to himself?


(But there might be consequences to your theory if others had visions of Christ as well as Paul.)



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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