Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

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liamconnor
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Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #1

Post by liamconnor »

(Preliminary: this thread is not about "The Bible". It is about an historical situation--i.e. the origins of the early church--i.e. the claimed resurrection. No document will be judged "better" or "more reliable" simply on the grounds that "it's in the Bible". We will use the same thing used in all historical investigations--common sense and historical methodology)

It seems that folks on this thread still do not understand how history is done and what amounts to historical evidence; analogies between N.T. studies and present day courtroom scenes are made— since we cannot cross examine so-called eyewitnesses of the N.T., clearly Christianity is a sham. As if we could cross examine ANY historical figure!

As Aristotle pointed out to us, every science yields its own degree of knowledge and to require more is not an indication of the science’s weakness but of your own. History is conducted by analyzing and comparing documents; the degree of knowledge it yields ranges from implausible to beyond reasonable doubt. One can always doubt an historical claim; whether one can do so reasonably is another question. Anybody claiming on a thread entitled “Historical Evidence for the Resurrection� that “eyewitness testimony is not evidence� simply does not know what he is talking about and should refrain from commenting on such threads. There is just no point in debating with such a person on the level of history—stick to geometrical problems.

To reinforce the initial preliminary, I quote DI
The reason that Christianity is a "sham" is because it doesn't merely claim to be history, it claims to be the TRUTH. And it even accuses everyone who refuses to believe in it of having "rejected God" and having chosen evil over good etc.
This is an historical investigation. Please drop all questions about the ancient documents' "divine status"; all assumptions that you know what "Christians believe" or even what "Christianity has believed" about the Bible are to be suspended. We will treat them as we treat Josephus or an anthology of ancient Roman historians.

To begin this thread, I analyze what is probably the earliest Christian creed we have, from 1 Cor. 15. I ask that we do some real, mature history: the kind of history done with all ancient documents.

I care very much for structure, and so here is how I’ve structured my argument: 1) I give the proposition with a defense; 2) I voice a common objection; 3) I meet that objection in a rejoinder; 4) I give my conclusion.

1 Cor 15:1—8: (I have italicized what is probably not part of the original creed—that is, certain phrases which disrupt the rhythm of the Greek, and are “Pauliocentric�. These are most likely editorial or introductory remarks from Paul. I have also emboldened two key words. Everything in plain print I (as well as numerous scholars) believe to be original to the oral tradition.)

Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand,
2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain.
3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received,


that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
4 and that He was buried,
and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
5 and that He appeared to Cephas,
then to the twelve.
6 After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep;
7 then He appeared to James,
then to all the apostles;
8 and last of all, as it were to one untimely born, He appeared to me also. (1Co 15:1-8 NAS)

Proposition #1 Paul recalls to the Corinthians a list he received of persons whom he claims saw the risen Jesus.

Defense: The two terms in bold are in this context technical terms signifying both the transmission of oral tradition and its reception—Jews highly valued the importance (almost sanctity) of oral tradition; Paul was no different, even when the tradition was regards Jesus and not Torah (Cf. Gal 1:14). The Corinthians received what Paul handed over to them; what Paul handed over to them Paul claims he himself received.

Objection: Paul is lying.

Rejoinder: 1) This is conjecture without any historical warrant: you are just making stuff up. 2) If Paul were lying, he would surely have left out all names, and said that most if not all of the recipients of this encounter were dead. That is how good liars work—leave no room for investigation or keep the circle very, very small. Instead, Paul gives leads for readers to investigate: Peter, James, and just less than 500 whom the Corinthian church could’ve inquired into (i.e. we know they sent him a letter; we know he had visited them). 3) And yet we have no paper trail calling Paul out for a lie. We know that the Corinthian church was not shy of criticizing Paul—yet they never cried out “Liar� regards his list of witnesses. What we do have is at least three independent attestations of one apostle, James (1 Cor, Acts and Josephus). Outside of the Corinthian correspondence we have named apostles who are resident at the letter’s designation (Rom 16:7). People traveled back then more than today; they didn’t have the telephone or the internet; traveling is how information was conveyed—someone somewhere was always traveling with some news. A lie on the level of Paul in 1 Cor. (as well as in other letters where he names apostles) would have exposed him as a sham and the probability of that sham appearing in history is overwhelming--the very fact that Paul's letters continued to circulate as authoritative is evidence that no one called "liar"--and we know from his own letters (GAlatians and Corinthian correspondence) that people were willing to impugn him publicly.
So, 1) We have ZERO paper trail of Paul lying about this list 2) the list itself is vulnerable to investigation—it gives names and is made up of at least 500 individuals.

Conclusion: 1) Paul delivers a list of persons who claim they saw the risen Jesus, and this list includes two explicitly named individuals, and perhaps eleven or twelve implicitly named individuals (that no one in Corinth would've asked "who are these twelve?" is preposterous). 2) This list is prior to Paul’s writing to the Corinthians: scholars (of ALL types) agree that the letter was composed about 50 AD (twenty years after the dead of Jesus); hence the creed itself is prior to 50 AD. 3) The list is comprised of eyewitnesses of post-crucifixion appearances. This list, in light of the considerations above, counts as eyewitness testimony. It is not FROM those eyewitnesses; but then we are not in a courtroom--we are doing history. Most of your historical beliefs are based on eyewitness testimony at multiple removes.

Next Question (after hearing reasonable responses): When did Paul receive this creed and from whom? Is there a paper trail of this transmission?
Last edited by liamconnor on Sat Apr 23, 2016 3:09 am, edited 3 times in total.

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Post #371

Post by rikuoamero »

[Replying to post 368 by JLB32168]
No insult intended, but your version of the argument are essentially the same.
Where in post 367 did I even touch on the topic of the contradictions between the Gospels? Or say the supernatural does not exist?

It seems to me here that you are woefully ignorant of the difference between saying "This thing is most definitely false/not true/non-existent" and "I have no reason to believe your claim that this thing is true/existent".
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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #372

Post by Kenisaw »

Several people have made some rather illogical remarks about universal laws and the existence of life in the universe. Rather than respond to each individual I thought it would be easier to cover it in one post.

The universal laws, or cosmological constants, or physical constants, or whatever one would like to call them, exist in the universe. We know this based on millions of man hours of testing and experimentation. All the data points to these constants being unchanged. I think everyone can agree to this point.

Some have said that the odds, or chances, of the universal laws being the way they are is so tiny that it couldn't have happened by chance. This is not an argument for the existence of a god creature or the supernatural, for multiple reasons.

1) No one in this forum can say, with any authority, what the possible limits are of the values of the four fundamental forces of the universe. For all we know, the values of gravity and the strong nuclear force can't be any different than what they are in this universe. So to talk about the "odds" of the universal laws being what they are is impossible because no one knows the limitations that those valuations can have. Without a range, you can't say how possible it is for a particular number to happen.

2) No one in this forum can say, with any authority, what the possible limits are for the existence of some kind of life either. For basically the same reasoning as 1), without knowing all the possible combinations of constants that would allow some kind of life to exist, it is impossible to determine how special or important our particular universal laws are. There could be trillions of combinations that allow for the possibility of life, or there could be just one. We have no way of knowing.

3) As it relates to our particular universe, whether life happened naturally or it was created by a god creature, it would have to be possible within the parameters of the current universe, wouldn't it? So the fact that life does exist in this universe under these current conditions isn't an argument for either side, because in either scenario the kind of life that is on Earth would require such current conditions. If conditions were different, obviously we couldn't be here to debate them. Its a DUH kind of thing, but of course the universe allows for our type of life forms to exist, else we couldn't be here to discuss the matter!

The whole debate about the odds for the values of universal constants is irrational, and does not support either side...

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Post #373

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

tfvespasianus wrote: When I discuss things, I tend to grant the strongest possible reading of what they are saying and try and address that. Thus, I accepted your lack of precision in constructing your sentence. For it is ambiguous and would have better read ‘He quotes frequently from all the gospels excluding Mark’ rather than sloppily writing something that could be grammatically construed as the NT containing all the gospels except the book of Mark.
Reading comprehension...now, I could have just said "all of the NT EXCEPT the book of Mark".

Instead, I said "all of the NT, including the Gospels EXCEPT Mark".

Either way, the point was made that of the entire NT, Mark is the only book that is EXCLUDED. Your reading comprehension wasn't on its A-game, basically lol.
tfvespasianus wrote: In any case, I don’t think Ignatius quotes extensively from the NT as the statement implies (e.g. Revelation? The general epistles?).

As for offering an unattributed line that is contained in Luke, there are several possibilities that account for the passage aside from having a copy of Luke in front of the author (or interpolator) of the epistle. One such possibility is that this sentence is part of an oral tradition that eventually made its way into our gospel of Luke. Given that the author of Luke states in his prologue that he is a collector/editor of material in his prologue this seems reasonable coupled with the fact that Ignatius’ account of the Nativity (cited in my earlier post) differs from both canonical Matthew and Luke in details.
Fine, you can call it "just a tradition", but guess what, traditions can be derived from truth, so I don't see how pointing out that it may be a tradition does for the notion that you are positing.

You mention what Luke said in his preface; and in that preface he states that account that he is giving to Theophilus is derived from those "which from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word" (Luke 1:2).

He is stating that the account he gives had ORIGINATED from eyewitnesses. So at that point, it doesn't necessarily matter when the book was written, as long as the content of the book originated from those that were there.

I don't recall seeing what you stated regarding Ignatius' Navitity account, however, it is not my position that Ignatius is quoting from Matthew (in reference to Jesus' birth), at least as his letter to Ephesians (19) is concerned.
tfvespasianus wrote: For given how disparate Ignatius’ Nativity is from the gospels it seems unlikely that he would have relayed what he if he were well-acquainted with the story in the form that is familiar to us. So, any explanation of the (unattributed) passages in the Ignatian epistles must take into account the evidence on the whole rather than positing that because a quote bears similarity to a passage in the gospels the gospels in the form we now have them must have existed at the time. Few would go so far as to say that there was no gospel material extant in the early second century (that would be fatuous), but that doesn’t mean that the final redaction of the gospels was in circulation at this time.
Again, I don't know what you are talking about. If you are talking about his Ephesians 19, I don't see that as an "account" of the virgin birth. It is barely a mere mention, much less an actual account on the same level as Matthew and Luke.

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Post #374

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

rikuoamero wrote: It's already been pointed out to you that the gospels were NOT written by those apostles.
Oh, you must have been there when the book was written, so you know EXACTLY who wrote the book. Is that the case? No, it isn't.

You were not there, so you didn't point out anything. I have reasons to believe that Matthew and John (two of the Twelve Apostles), wrote both of the books that bears their name...or at the very LEAST are the two of whom the source material came from.

If there is any reason to believe otherwise, I haven't heard it yet, specifically from you.
rikuoamero wrote: Further more, Matthew borrows MUCH from Mark, and Mark in its earliest copies does NOT mention a resurrection. This strongly indicates that the resurrection was a later invention.
The Resurrection couldn't have been a later invention if Paul wrote about the Resurrection BEFORE both of the books (Matthew and Mark) in question.

Sure, Mark may be the EARLIEST Gospel, but it isn't the EARLIEST known mention of the Resurrection. Paul is.

Please know your history.
rikuoamero wrote: Should I be worried that you deliberately call this a bag of tricks?
Yes, you should.
rikuoamero wrote: Notice what I said there - the earth being carried on the back of a titan. I did not say anything that is beyond our observable universe. I said "earth". As in the planet.
Then you've answered your own question, didn't you?
rikuoamero wrote: So if you found such a document, you would look for physical evidence that our planet is being carried on the back of a titan? Even though we have decades of evidence from orbiting satellites that our planet is a spheroid flying in space, orbiting the sun? You don't rule out the titan claim?
I have no reasons to believe titan claim.
rikuoamero wrote: I must also point out that you are included in that 'we don't know' statement of yours. If you stand by that statement, I fully expect you to cease making claims about anything beyond the observable universe, since such claims are, by your own admission, without merit.
I don't make the positive statements that I make based on what I don't know, I make them based on what I do know.
rikuoamero wrote: But what it is not is evident for all to see, such that no one could ever mistake this god for anything else.
Huh?
rikuoamero wrote: Cause and effect are concepts that only apply within space-time, within the universe.
The universe began to exist, and its cause could not exist within it, could it?
rikuoamero wrote: Besides, you're rushing headlong into the paradox of demanding an explanation, a cause, for the universe, but arbitrarily NOT requiring one for the god that you declare is the cause of the universe.
Did God began to exist? No, he didn't. Therefore, the premise "Everything that begins to exist has a cause" doesn't apply to something that did not begin to exist.
rikuoamero wrote: Any argument you make for why God doesn't need a cause, doesn't need an explanation, works just fine for the universe itself
No it doesn't, because we have evidence that the universe DID have a beginning. Or are you ignorant of contemporary cosmology, and the fact that every text book on cosmology is clear; the universe began to exist.

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Post #375

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

rikuoamero wrote: Of course, you're probably not aware of the problem of the Intelligent Design argument - namely, that if the universe WERE intelligently designed, it would be literally impossible for a human to show that it is such, and without being able to show one's work, any claim of an ID'd universe falls by the wayside.
I've already addressed this in another post. Penrose' calculations state the improbabilty of our universe being life permitting by random chance, and it aint happening in one try.
rikuoamero wrote: If the universe and everything in it were intelligently designed, how is this to be accomplished? If you hold up a rock that you claim is a part of an intelligently designed universe, do you have a rock formed purely from natural forces (i.e., not from your god) that I can use to compare and contrast?
I don't get it.
rikuoamero wrote: Oh and as an added challenge - the Intelligent Design argument analogy, if followed "correctly" leads to there being multiple intelligent designers, and never just the one.
Your challenge is to think about this and tell me why. I already know the answer. I want to see if you can figure it out.
I will tell you why it doesn't; Occams Razor.

Only one omnipotent designer is needed to explain the effect, so positing more intelligent designers is unwarranted. We do not need to posit beyond necessity.

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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #376

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

marco wrote: There are other options. When you don't know who committed a crime it is not acceptable to invent a culprit.
We may not know who the culprit is, but we can rule out "natural causes", can't we?
marco wrote: You assume something was "done". You assume there was a "doer".
1. Everything that begins to exist has a cause

2. The universe began to exist.

3. Therefore, the universe has a cause

That's all I am saying.
marco wrote: You assume what you see is what reality IS. You may be wrong about what constitutes reality. You assume that your brain, having hit on two possibilities, is therefore correct in limiting the possibilities to only two.
Well, enlighten me on any other possibilities, and I will add them to the list.
marco wrote: When you ask what other ones there are, you assume that because we do not know, you must be right with your choice of only two. Thus you create God from naivety and ignorance.
Until I have reasons to believe there are other possibilities besides the two that I mentioned, I will stick to my two, and use the law of excluded middle to rule out one, and favor the other.

I go where the evidence takes me. I don't run from it, but towards it.
marco wrote: That is why the biblical God sometimes appears to be absurd.
Why? Did it miss something?

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Post #377

Post by rikuoamero »

[Replying to post 373 by For_The_Kingdom]
The Resurrection couldn't have been a later invention if Paul wrote about the Resurrection BEFORE both of the books (Matthew and Mark) in question.

Sure, Mark may be the EARLIEST Gospel, but it isn't the EARLIEST known mention of the Resurrection. Paul is.
Okay fine. I'll admit it. That statement of mine is in error.

Still however, my point about Gospel Mark still stands. For some reason, the earliest manuscripts we have of it DO NOT MENTION a resurrection. They end with the women at the tomb being told "He is risen" and that statement is not elaborated on (what exactly does it mean)?
Since the earliest copies of Mark don't have a resurrection (but the later ones do), then why use Mark as 'evidence' for the resurrection? Why use Matthew which borrows plenty of its text from Mark (and which then suffers from the same problem as Mark?)
Why use John, which is the latest gospel, and not the earliest?

Long story short
Why do you trust what John says, when he was the latest of the gospels, and not the earliest version of the earliest Gospel?
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Some force seems to restrict me from buying into the apparent nonsense that others find so easy to buy into. Having no religious or supernatural beliefs of my own, I just call that force reason. -- Tired of the Nonsense

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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #378

Post by rikuoamero »

[Replying to post 375 by For_The_Kingdom]
1. Everything that begins to exist has a cause

2. The universe began to exist.

3. Therefore, the universe has a cause

That's all I am saying.
No it isn't. It is NOT "all" that you are saying. You have gone so far beyond simply saying there is a cause for the universe that it's laughable. You claim to understand just WHAT that cause is. You claim to have identified it.
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I condemn all gods who dare demand my fealty, who won't look me in the face so's I know who it is I gotta fealty to. -- JoeyKnotHead

Some force seems to restrict me from buying into the apparent nonsense that others find so easy to buy into. Having no religious or supernatural beliefs of my own, I just call that force reason. -- Tired of the Nonsense

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Post #379

Post by rikuoamero »

[Replying to post 374 by For_The_Kingdom]
I've already addressed this in another post. Penrose' calculations state the improbabilty of our universe being life permitting by random chance, and it aint happening in one try.
And I've already refuted said arguments by pointing out that these arguments assume that life could only ever form in the way that it has formed on the Earth that we inhabit, and that somehow life could absolutely never form any other way in any other conditions.
I don't get it.
Have you ever heard of the Watch on the Beach analogy? If you haven't, it's a favourite of Intelligent Design proponents. The argument runs something like this
A man is walking along a beach, and on the ground he sees a watch. He picks it up and examines it, and eventually comes to the conclusion that this object bears all the hallmarks of design and therefore it could not be natural. It must have had an intelligent designer responsible for it.

The problem with this analogy is that in order to make this determination, he had to compare and contrast this watch with his surroundings. In order to determine that the watch is designed, he had to examine something that he has previously determined is not designed, like a random rock.
So if you are in an intelligently designed universe, and you hold up a rock in one hand and say that this rock was intelligently designed and is part of an ID universe...how can you make that determination? Do you have, in the other hand, a rock of natural origins that you can compare the first rock to?
Basically, think of me like your teacher from math class. You may have hit on the right answer, but I will mark your answer with a big fat fail if you do not show your work, and right now, your argument for ID fails because you need to compare and contrast an ID object with a non-ID object...and you can't do that because if ever you were to do it, that would mean that there are objects that don't have their ultimate origin in the god being you claim.
I will tell you why it doesn't; Occams Razor.

Only one omnipotent designer is needed to explain the effect, so positing more intelligent designers is unwarranted. We do not need to posit beyond necessity.
The reason why I said that goes back to the Watch on the Beach analogy. The man picks it up, examines it, determines that it was designed, and for some reason, the proponents of this argument conclude only a single designer was responsible.
However, if you think about it, the conclusion does not flow from the previous premises. A watch does NOT have one single designer. Each piece of a watch had someone else responsible for its design. Sure, there may be a single person responsible for putting a single watch together (I'm not entirely sure if that's true, or just a romanticist view in movies) but complex objects are, to my knowledge, designed by teams of people. No one person is responsible for the design of all parts of a given complex object.
Did a single person design an entire car? An entire building? A computer?
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Your life is your own. Rise up and live it - Richard Rahl, Sword of Truth Book 6 "Faith of the Fallen"

I condemn all gods who dare demand my fealty, who won't look me in the face so's I know who it is I gotta fealty to. -- JoeyKnotHead

Some force seems to restrict me from buying into the apparent nonsense that others find so easy to buy into. Having no religious or supernatural beliefs of my own, I just call that force reason. -- Tired of the Nonsense

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Post #380

Post by Kapyong »

Gday For_The_Kingdom and tfvespasianus and all :)

tfvespasianus wrote: When I discuss things, I tend to grant the strongest possible reading of what they are saying and try and address that. Thus, I accepted your lack of precision in constructing your sentence. For it is ambiguous and would have better read ‘He [Ignatius] quotes frequently from all the gospels excluding Mark’ rather than sloppily writing something that could be grammatically construed as the NT containing all the gospels except the book of Mark.
For_The_Kingdom wrote: Reading comprehension...now, I could have just said "all of the NT EXCEPT the book of Mark".
Instead, I said "all of the NT, including the Gospels EXCEPT Mark".

Either way, the point was made that of the entire NT, Mark is the only book that is EXCLUDED. Your reading comprehension wasn't on its A-game, basically lol.
Yes, there was some mis-understandings, but they have been cleared up now :)

Your point is quite clear :
(For_The_Kingdom): Ignatius quotes from "all of the NT EXCEPT the book of Mark".

But that is clearly wrong, as I pointed out up-thread - perhaps you missed my post ?

Here is what Glenn Davis' site NTcanon has to say :
Image

The left column is 'Ignatius'.

Note that he does seem to reference G.Matthew and G.Luke, but not G.Mark nor G.John. Nor many other NT works like 2 Cor., Gal., James, 1,2,3 John, 1,2 Peter, Jude, Rev.

The evidence is quite clear - this claim :
(For_The_Kingdom): Ignatius quotes from "all of the NT EXCEPT the book of Mark".
is incorrect.

tfvespasianus is right. :)


Furthermore -
note that Ignatius never directly names or quotes any NT book - he never writes anything like this : "According to the Gospel of Matthew we read 'blah blah'."

The Ignatiana are some of the most confused and corrupt books of all - the authorship is unknown, the dating uncertain.

There is no clear evidence that Ignatius knew any written Gospel at all - what he shows is some knowledge of some Jesus Christ stories which are also found in the Gospels.

Ignatius, like 1 Clement, the Didakhe and Barnabas, come from the inter-Gospel period - the Gospels exist, their stories are spreading - but the Gospels have not yet become widespread and authoritative.

Here is a possible connection layout of all these books, according to data collated by Bernard Muller, with the graphic done by myself :
Image

He places Ignatius around 135, which seems fair to me.


Kapyong

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