Did God restore Israel in 1948?

[dad1]

Israel must be back in the land in the end time according to the bible. Some people suggest that God brought them back, and that they are now fulfilling prophesy such as the desert blooming like a rose etc. Can anyone support that idea? Several denominations do make such claims.

In the end, after the remnant repents and Jesus returns, is when God restores believing Israel to the land. Not, as far as I can tell, in 1948. So, there are good bible teaching preachers that seem to think otherwise (Jack Hibbs, Behold Israel, Jan Markell, James Kaddis, Bret meador, etc etc). The thread is for someone to support their claims. In other threads I have not seen this done yet.

[JehovahsWitness]

Can you explain why Paul refered to "the Law" in a discussion about the requirements to make animal sacrifices, if his references to "the law" only included the ten commandements ?

HEBREWS 10:1

For since the Law has a shadow of the good things to come, but not the very substance of the things, it can never, by the same sacrifices that are continually offered year after year, make those who approach perfect

- what is the pronoun "it" (in red above) ?

[1213]

Who were to be selected for this kingdom of Priests?

The people to whom the EXODUS 19:5, 6 was said.

Since the Mosaic law did not allow for kingship and Priesthood to be combined in the same office, would the above mean the law would have to be modified? Is there and alliance for the Mosaic law to be changed / modified?

Please show the scripture that says kingship and priesthood can't be combined in the same office?

[JehovahsWitness]

EXODUS 19:5, 6

5 Now if you will strictly obey my voice and keep my covenant, you will certainly become my special property* out of all peoples,+ for the whole earth belongs to me.+ 6 You will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’+ These are the words that you are to say to the Israelites.”

Who were to be selected for this kingdom of Priests?

The people to whom the EXODUS 19:5, 6 was said.

So are we agreed that under the old law covenant the promised "kingdom* of Priests" would have only been open for the Israelites not for people of the other nations?

* A KINGDOM is a government rule by a King(s); in this case The KINGS would evidently also be Priests.

[JehovahsWitness]

Please show the scripture that says kingship and priesthood can't be combined in the same office?

I didnt say "it cannot be" ... I said " the Mosaic law [covenant] did not allow for kingship and Priesthood to be combined". It can be combined if the Mosaic law a be changed or modified but I think we've agreed that modification of the law is not possible. The only alternaive then is that the law be annulled or the covenant be broken. God cannot break his covenant and the Israelites had no right to unilaterally override it. Which leaves us with the law being brought to its natural end.

- By what i know, Bible doesn't give time limit to the covenant.

Indeed so it could end at an unforseen (unstipulated) time.


JW

[JehovahsWitness]

Did you see the question in post #161 HERE-->> viewtopic.php?p=1149571#p1149571

Would you care to answer it?

[JehovahsWitness]

Please show the scripture that says kingship and priesthood can't be combined in the same office?

UNDER THE MOSAIC LAW PRIESTOOD WAS RESTRICTED TO THE TRIBE OF LEVI ALONE.

NUMBERS 3:9, 10

And you must give the Levites to Aaron and his sons. They are given ones, given to him from the sons of Israel. 10 And you should appoint Aaron and his sons, and they must take care of their priesthood; and any stranger coming near should be put to death.”

THE DAVIDIC COVENANT RESTICTED DIVINE KINGSHIP TO THE DESCENANTS OF DAVID

Psalm 89:34-36

34 I will not violate my covenant Or change what my lips have spoken. 35 I have sworn in my holiness, once and for all; I will not tell lies to David. His offspring will endure forever; His throne will endure like the sun before me

2 SAMUEL 7:16

Your house and your kingdom will be secure forever before you; your throne will be firmly established forever.”

Can you explain how if the PRIESTOOD, under the Mosaic law covenant , was restricted to the tribe of LEVI and God promised kingship to the descendants of David (of the tribe of Judah) ,there could be a kingdom* of royal (king)/Priests without amending (changing) or replacing the Mosaic law covenant ?

** A KINGDOM is a government rule by a King(s); in this case The KINGS would evidently also be Priests.

[1213]

Can you explain how if the PRIESTOOD, under the Mosaic law covenant , was restricted to the tribe of LEVI and God promised kingship to the descendants of David (of the tribe of Judah) ,there could be a kingdom* of royal (king)/Priests without amending (changing) or replacing the Mosaic law covenant ?

For example they can be kings and priests for other nations. Or it is about the future, when heaven and earth has passed away.

Truly I say to you, Until the heaven and the earth pass away, in no way shall one iota or one tittle pass away from the law until all comes to pass.
Mattt. 5:18

[JehovahsWitness]

Can you explain how if the PRIESTOOD, under the Mosaic law covenant , was restricted to the tribe of LEVI and God promised kingship to the descendants of David (of the tribe of Judah) ,there could be a kingdom* of royal (king)/Priests without amending (changing) or replacing the Mosaic law covenant ?

For example they can be kings and priests for other nations.

The covenant makes no provision for Priesthood for other nations, it was strictly for the nation of Israel only. Can you explain how the there can be a Priesthood (and a kingship) " for other nations" without amending (changing: adding something and removing other things) or replacing the Mosaic law covenant?

ROMANS 7

If, then, perfection was attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for it was a feature of the Law* that was given to the people), what further need would there be for another priest to arise who is said to be in the manner of Melchizedek

Paul's entire argument was that the Mosaic Law was not enough. Since the original cojld not be changed it had To be replaced.


* This scripture also addresses the erroneous idea that when Paul refered to --> "The Law" < --- he was ONLY speaking about the Ten Commandements.

....There are also several other rules, but they are separate from the 10, which is why they are not necessary the same as the God's law...

I think I must have misunderstood you, when Paul, referred to "the law" ( in the context of Jewish worship) was he ONLY speakng of the ten commandements ?

[JehovahsWitness]

Truly I say to you, Until the heaven and the earth pass away, in no way shall one iota or one tittle pass away from the law until all comes to pass.
Mattt. 5:18

What do you think Jesus meant by the expression "until all comes to pass"? Read the same scripture in various other translations below to help you answer the question ...

.

New Living Translation
I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not even the smallest detail of God’s law will disappear until its purpose is achieved.


New King James Version
For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.

NASB 1977
“For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass away from the Law, until all is accomplished.

Amplified Bible
For I assure you and most solemnly say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke [of the pen] will pass from the Law until all things [which it foreshadows] are accomplished.

CAN YOU SEE WHY YOU NEEDTO UNDERSTAND WHY ALL THOSE HUNDREDS OF LAWS WE'RE GIVEN? ONLY THEN WILL YOU BE ABLE TO SEE WHEN THE LAW IS FULFILLED/ACCOMPLISHED

Nobody failed, nobody broke their promise, nothing bad was in the law, it was given to be kept. And when someone came that kept every law perfectly ----> it had been accomplished!< ---

ROMANS 10: 4

New International Version
Christ is the culmination of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

New Living Translation
For Christ has already accomplished the purpose for which the law was given. As a result, all who believe in him are made right with God.

English Standard Version
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

There is no way to fully accept Christ and at the same time hold on to the notion that The Law is still in operation; for in doing so you reject the idea that he (Jesus) accomplished /fulfilled the law. If you accept that Christ was the purpose and the fulfillement of the law, then what did he himself say would happen to the law when it was fulfilled/accomplished?

MATTHEW 5:18 Legacy Standard Bible

For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished.

To illustrate: A young woman is engaged to a young man. She says to him, "I will not sleep with you UNTIL WE ARE MARRIED. Pigs will fly before you get me to have sex with you before we wed".

Since Pigs will never fly (and the mon will not pass away) is she saying she will never sleep with the young man? Or is she not rather saying she will never break the agreed terms of their present engagement? Now...what will happen when they are married? Will they continue to be engaged? What will happen to the terms of the engagement? Would they be changed (to include sex before marriage)? Or rather, would the engagement have fulfilled/accomplished its purpose, and the engagement contract be superceded by the MARRIAGE contract? Would the two agreements co-exist even though in the first there was no allowance for sex and the second an understanding that there would indeed be sexual intimacy?

In s similar way the Mosaic law with its hundreds of Laws (yes they were HUNDREDS of laws, not Ten with 600+ optional suggestions) ...the Law was an agreement only UNTIL its purpose was fulfilled, namely to help identify the Messiah and his role. Just as the engagement and the marriage could not co-exist because the terms and the conditions were contradictory, the Mosaic law coulld not co-exists with the new covenant. Just as girl would only sleep with her betrothed after marriage, the law could only "pass away" (be superceded by its superior contract) AFTER it had been fulfilled.

[1213]

The covenant makes no provision for Priesthood for other nations, it was strictly for the nation of Israel only. Can you explain how the there can be a Priesthood (and a kingship) " for other nations" without amending (changing: adding something and removing other things) or replacing the Mosaic law covenant?

I don't say the law is the only thing. Also other deals are possible at the same time.