historia wrote:
First, Paul doesn't refer to James as the "brother of Christ," but rather the "brother of the Lord," i.e., Jesus (Galatians 1:19).
It's the same deal. 'Brother of the Lord' is the Catholic version of saying 'brother in Christ'.
I did some further research on this and here's what I found:
When trying to understand these verses, note that the term "brother" (Greek: adelphos) has a wide meaning in the Bible. It is not restricted to the literal meaning of a full brother or half-brother. The same goes for "sister" (adelphe) and the plural form "brothers" (adelphoi). The Old Testament shows that "brother" had a wide semantic range of meaning and could refer to any male relative from whom you are not descended (male relatives from whom you are descended are known as "fathers") and who are not descended from you (your male descendants, regardless of the number of generations removed, are your "sons"), as well as kinsmen such as cousins, those who are members of the family by marriage or by law rather than by blood, and even friends or mere political allies (2 Sam. 1:26; Amos 1:9).
http://www.catholic.com/tracts/brethren-of-the-lord
Clearly the religious term 'brother of the Lord' was intentionally misused in order to gain that advantage over the other early churches.
Second, Paul and James are at odds in the early Church. Among our sources, it is not some vague "churches" or "cults" who claim that James is the brother of Jesus, but rather one of his opponents.
That's trivial and irrelevant. Friend or foe, how does one determine the truth from a rumour that has taken off the ground? Given that they were foes, the false claim of being the literal brother of Jesus would help James' cause. This actually makes your case worse.
Third, Josephus also mentions "the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James" (Antiquities of the Jews 20.9).
You should know that apologists have long discarded Josephus entirely because it's a known forgery by Eusebus in the 4th century. Also, early church fathers never quoted any of what Josephus said about Jesus so the paragraph must not have existed. Nothing to see here.
Finally, it's very easy to dream-up ad hoc hypotheses to explain the past -- this is why conspiracy theories are so popular. But in so far as your hypothesis requires us to believe quite a few new suppositions (the early christians lied about Jesus' existence, freely invented family members, and were vying cults) makes it a weak hypothesis.
No, I don't believe they lied about him at all. What we have left over is hearsay. What you need to understand about the nature of hearsay is this:
Let's suppose we have miracle worker M, witness W and person P. Now, a hearsay account would be one you hear from P which got his source from W. This is hearsay because your source wasn't a direct witness. The troubling thing for the Gospels is that because they were written ~40 years after the events, how do you know the 'degree of separation' from W to P? What I mean by that is that the story could very easily have gone from W to P... to P to P to P to P. As soon as this happens, then whose to say that the story is anything like W told it?
The damning fact about it all is that the witnesses didn't even write anything themselves. Why did the Qur'an get produced during the lifetime of Muhammad by people he knew directly and a supposed Jesus character get his life written down by gossip 40 years later? Maybe because a non-existent person's profile needs to be drawn up over 40 years of rumours?
See, the Gospels are a rumour gone out of hand and you can see how the story evolves over time and with the help of the political conditions between the early churches. You see the evolution of Jesus and how everything gets divine all of a sudden. The most compelling fact for this is the omission of his resurrection in Mark as the resurrection account (16:9-20) is foreign to Mark.
You aren't. We cannot recreate the past, and therefore can never have complete and absolute knowledge about it.
The purpose of any historical inquiry is not to "prove" what happened, but to identify and critically analyze the available sources, and reason toward the best explanation. That is what historians do.
The best evidence as considered by historians is people saying things in an unbiased manner; offshoot comments which aren't adding anything to the person's point per se. Different points of view would also help them to determine the climate of things I'm sure. With the Gospels though, we have a one-sided argument which seems to be heavily biased at times. From Mark's 'young man' to Matthew's 'angel' in the tomb, we clearly see that the motive here is to add the 'wow' factor, and of course we would expect that from a biased source.
I personally don't see the point of trying to reconstruct history from the Gospels. Given that no historian ever speaks of Jesus or his Apostles you're just reconstructing a one-sided story. Why bother.
Jesus or his family or his disciples or even Paul never got a mention by any historian. Why should we assume this is historically correct?
You should not
assume that it is historically correct. Rather, you should recognize that it is the best hypothesis to explain the available information.
Yeah but backed up in what way? Why don't you recognize that Hercules, Son of Jupiter was real? We have the biased texts that mention him.
I'm not sure what you mean by "form of proof." But it seems to me that, if we are going to engage in an historical inquiry, we might look to see what actual scholars and historians have to say about it. Because, you know, they are experts and we are not.
That there is an overwhelming consensus among scholars that Jesus existed is certainly a strong argument in favor of that position.
Even then you get most of them saying that nothing about Jesus can really be known. I agree, no secular evidence for him, so I can't really know if he existed. Based on the mystery cults and Hercules, we see that the idea of Jesus has been recycled over and over even before Christianity, so why should Jesus be any more real than the rest?
Of course we do. The gospel authors collected and edited the written and oral accounts of Jesus' earliest followers into the final texts that we see today. That is why the gospels are our chief source of information for Jesus himself.
And your evidence for this is...?
Chief source from people that
never saw him. Hearsay.
Listen, Jospehus wasn't an eyewitness to everything he wrote about. Tacitus wasn't an eyewitness to the events he wrote about. And yet you call them "historians."
But when Luke compiles earlier written and oral accounts about Jesus into a final text -- just as Jospehus and Tacitus and other ancient "historians" did for their respective histories -- all of a sudden it's mere "hearsay" and can't be trusted?
Why the double standard?
Historians I'm sure would give priority to witness accounts and contemporary historians of the time. The Gospels on the other hand can't be verified in any way because they're the only texts making positive claims for something. And yes, they are hearsay as I have pointed out because there are many clues
within the Gospels that show the authors weren't witnesses.
I find it intriguing that anyone directly related to Jesus, including Jesus himself, never left anything behind. Paul never claimed to have met Jesus and coincidentally he wrote his own texts. The Apostles on the other hand were in the middle of it all yet they left nothing behind. That makes 13 people which had nothing to say for themselves, nor did any secular sources ever see them apparently. Doesn't all of this tell you something?