Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

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liamconnor
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Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #1

Post by liamconnor »

(Preliminary: this thread is not about "The Bible". It is about an historical situation--i.e. the origins of the early church--i.e. the claimed resurrection. No document will be judged "better" or "more reliable" simply on the grounds that "it's in the Bible". We will use the same thing used in all historical investigations--common sense and historical methodology)

It seems that folks on this thread still do not understand how history is done and what amounts to historical evidence; analogies between N.T. studies and present day courtroom scenes are made— since we cannot cross examine so-called eyewitnesses of the N.T., clearly Christianity is a sham. As if we could cross examine ANY historical figure!

As Aristotle pointed out to us, every science yields its own degree of knowledge and to require more is not an indication of the science’s weakness but of your own. History is conducted by analyzing and comparing documents; the degree of knowledge it yields ranges from implausible to beyond reasonable doubt. One can always doubt an historical claim; whether one can do so reasonably is another question. Anybody claiming on a thread entitled “Historical Evidence for the Resurrection� that “eyewitness testimony is not evidence� simply does not know what he is talking about and should refrain from commenting on such threads. There is just no point in debating with such a person on the level of history—stick to geometrical problems.

To reinforce the initial preliminary, I quote DI
The reason that Christianity is a "sham" is because it doesn't merely claim to be history, it claims to be the TRUTH. And it even accuses everyone who refuses to believe in it of having "rejected God" and having chosen evil over good etc.
This is an historical investigation. Please drop all questions about the ancient documents' "divine status"; all assumptions that you know what "Christians believe" or even what "Christianity has believed" about the Bible are to be suspended. We will treat them as we treat Josephus or an anthology of ancient Roman historians.

To begin this thread, I analyze what is probably the earliest Christian creed we have, from 1 Cor. 15. I ask that we do some real, mature history: the kind of history done with all ancient documents.

I care very much for structure, and so here is how I’ve structured my argument: 1) I give the proposition with a defense; 2) I voice a common objection; 3) I meet that objection in a rejoinder; 4) I give my conclusion.

1 Cor 15:1—8: (I have italicized what is probably not part of the original creed—that is, certain phrases which disrupt the rhythm of the Greek, and are “Pauliocentric�. These are most likely editorial or introductory remarks from Paul. I have also emboldened two key words. Everything in plain print I (as well as numerous scholars) believe to be original to the oral tradition.)

Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand,
2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain.
3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received,


that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
4 and that He was buried,
and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
5 and that He appeared to Cephas,
then to the twelve.
6 After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep;
7 then He appeared to James,
then to all the apostles;
8 and last of all, as it were to one untimely born, He appeared to me also. (1Co 15:1-8 NAS)

Proposition #1 Paul recalls to the Corinthians a list he received of persons whom he claims saw the risen Jesus.

Defense: The two terms in bold are in this context technical terms signifying both the transmission of oral tradition and its reception—Jews highly valued the importance (almost sanctity) of oral tradition; Paul was no different, even when the tradition was regards Jesus and not Torah (Cf. Gal 1:14). The Corinthians received what Paul handed over to them; what Paul handed over to them Paul claims he himself received.

Objection: Paul is lying.

Rejoinder: 1) This is conjecture without any historical warrant: you are just making stuff up. 2) If Paul were lying, he would surely have left out all names, and said that most if not all of the recipients of this encounter were dead. That is how good liars work—leave no room for investigation or keep the circle very, very small. Instead, Paul gives leads for readers to investigate: Peter, James, and just less than 500 whom the Corinthian church could’ve inquired into (i.e. we know they sent him a letter; we know he had visited them). 3) And yet we have no paper trail calling Paul out for a lie. We know that the Corinthian church was not shy of criticizing Paul—yet they never cried out “Liar� regards his list of witnesses. What we do have is at least three independent attestations of one apostle, James (1 Cor, Acts and Josephus). Outside of the Corinthian correspondence we have named apostles who are resident at the letter’s designation (Rom 16:7). People traveled back then more than today; they didn’t have the telephone or the internet; traveling is how information was conveyed—someone somewhere was always traveling with some news. A lie on the level of Paul in 1 Cor. (as well as in other letters where he names apostles) would have exposed him as a sham and the probability of that sham appearing in history is overwhelming--the very fact that Paul's letters continued to circulate as authoritative is evidence that no one called "liar"--and we know from his own letters (GAlatians and Corinthian correspondence) that people were willing to impugn him publicly.
So, 1) We have ZERO paper trail of Paul lying about this list 2) the list itself is vulnerable to investigation—it gives names and is made up of at least 500 individuals.

Conclusion: 1) Paul delivers a list of persons who claim they saw the risen Jesus, and this list includes two explicitly named individuals, and perhaps eleven or twelve implicitly named individuals (that no one in Corinth would've asked "who are these twelve?" is preposterous). 2) This list is prior to Paul’s writing to the Corinthians: scholars (of ALL types) agree that the letter was composed about 50 AD (twenty years after the dead of Jesus); hence the creed itself is prior to 50 AD. 3) The list is comprised of eyewitnesses of post-crucifixion appearances. This list, in light of the considerations above, counts as eyewitness testimony. It is not FROM those eyewitnesses; but then we are not in a courtroom--we are doing history. Most of your historical beliefs are based on eyewitness testimony at multiple removes.

Next Question (after hearing reasonable responses): When did Paul receive this creed and from whom? Is there a paper trail of this transmission?
Last edited by liamconnor on Sat Apr 23, 2016 3:09 am, edited 3 times in total.

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Post #381

Post by Zzyzx »

.
For_The_Kingdom wrote: Oh, you must have been there when the book was written, so you know EXACTLY who wrote the book. Is that the case? No, it isn't.
Let's see . . . who is claiming to know who wrote the book?
For_The_Kingdom wrote: You were not there, so you didn't point out anything.
Oh, were you there?
For_The_Kingdom wrote: I have reasons to believe that Matthew and John (two of the Twelve Apostles), wrote both of the books that bears their name...or at the very LEAST are the two of whom the source material came from.
Christian scholars and theologians have reason to doubt that any Apostles wrote the gospels that bear their names.

A mere claim to have “reasons to believe� is worthless in debate (though it may be adequate in church). Kindly set forth the evidence and let readers decide if it is convincing.
For_The_Kingdom wrote: If there is any reason to believe otherwise, I haven't heard it yet, specifically from you.
It might be prudent to read what Christian scholars and theologians have to say about authorship of the gospels (rather than relying on an Internet forum).
For_The_Kingdom wrote: The Resurrection couldn't have been a later invention if Paul wrote about the Resurrection BEFORE both of the books (Matthew and Mark) in question.
Paul/Saul IS a later writing (that could be an invention). His writings are dated by scholars and theologians as twenty to thirty or more years after the claimed event.
For_The_Kingdom wrote: Sure, Mark may be the EARLIEST Gospel, but it isn't the EARLIEST known mention of the Resurrection. Paul is.
Paul/Saul – a religion fanatic / promoter writing decades after the claimed event – a person who never met Jesus – a story based on a claimed “vision� (or hallucination or delusion or whatever it was). Paul/Saul does not even describe the claimed event – that is done by whoever wrote Acts.
For_The_Kingdom wrote: Please know your history.
Religion tales are NOT history. The Bible is not a history book – it is religion promotional literature.
For_The_Kingdom wrote: I don't make the positive statements that I make based on what I don't know, I make them based on what I do know.
As Mark Twain famously said, “It ain't what you don't know that gets you into trouble. It's what you know for sure that just ain't so.�
For_The_Kingdom wrote: Did God began to exist? No, he didn't.
Kindly provide verifiable evidence to support that claim.
.
Non-Theist

ANY of the thousands of "gods" proposed, imagined, worshiped, loved, feared, and/or fought over by humans MAY exist -- awaiting verifiable evidence

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Post #382

Post by tfvespasianus »

Kapyong wrote:
tfvespasianus is right. :)
Thanks Kapyong, one does like to hear that, and I while I admit I could definitely be incorrect in what I am saying about the epistles attributed to Ignatius I do feel that sufficient engagement with what I am saying has been lacking. In fact, the response was so facile that I don’t really have much more to say on the topic.

In any case, as you may have read, I set out some of the problems with the claim that the letters attributed to Ignatius establish that (almost all?) the writings of the NT existed prior to 108 in my post #306.

Here:
ref:Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Your post covers some of the same ground, but you have added much more detail and have expanded some of the main themes. So, good on you.

Take care,
TFV

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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #383

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

Kenisaw wrote: A promise of future evidence is not evidence.
Funny, because I say that everytime a naturalist tells me "one day, we will know".
Kenisaw wrote: In order for that process to happen, the people engaged in that "process" have to show that it is possible for the laws of the universe to not apply to something. I'm sure you see the logical hole is this, but I will spell it out so that we are sure everyone sees the problem. If they show that it is possible for the laws of the universe to not apply to something, then they aren't laws of the universe, are they. Which means that, literally, the entire body of work in every scientific field ever done is completely invalid.
Again, its funny you say that. You see, my questions are that of origins. Here are five things that began to exist...

1. The universe
2. Sentient life
3. Consciousness
4. Language
5. Objective moral values

Now, my question is simple; where did those 5 things come from? If you noticed, science is unable to explain the origins of ANY of those things. There is no natural law to explain it, nor is there any experiment that can show how/why those things began to exist (of course, if there was an experiment, there would be a natural law).

Sure, science does an excellent job of explaining how things work AFTER those things got here, but it does a POOR job of explaining or answering the question of where did those things come from in the first place. Natural law does NOT apply to those things. Those things owe their existence to something BEYOND nature, and I am here to demonstrate why this MUST be the case.
Kenisaw wrote: Which means that materials used for anything should fail at random times for no apparent reason. Bridges should collapse, water should suddenly fly apart and turn into hydrogen and oxygen, gravity should switch on and off. Literally everything in existence should at some point act outside the expected parameters than the millions of man hours of research and experimentation state they should.

Yet no one has ever found that. Even one tiny violation of one part of one law would pull the rug out from under all of it. So if these exceptions exist, where are they?
How did all of that stuff get there in the first place?? Again, you marvel at the order and structure of it all...you recognize the physical constants and the precision needed to keep things balanced...yet you are not asking yourself "where did all of this order and structure come from", among any of the other dozens of questions one will ask if he/she considers the entire game, not just one quarter or inning.
Kenisaw wrote: Since you seem to have intimate knowledge of some work going on that is going to provide us with this model, I'd love to hear about the details of it. Who's doing it?
God.
Kenisaw wrote: If you are appealing to the best explanation, then why are you claiming the one devoid of even one scrap of empirical data supporting it is the "best"?
If space, time, energy, and matter (STEM) began to exist, then doesn't it follow that whatever gave STEM its beginning is NOT itself a produce of STEM?
Kenisaw wrote: I'd also love to hear how you know which god creature did it, or are you just saying that is A god but you don't know which one?
Most of the traditional theistic arguments for the existence of God makes no attempt to shed any light on WHICH God exists...rather, they focus on proving that a God exists...but even with that being said, if any of those arguments are true, atheism is defeated. All it takes is for at least ONE of those arguments to be true in order the atheistic/naturalistic worldview to be negated.

Second, arguments like the argument based on the existence of objective morality; an argument like that makes the case for a PERSONAL being.

And third, the argument based on the Historicity of the Resurrection, that makes a case for a very SPECIFIC God, and if that argument is true, then we can just shave off all other gods and focus on the one for which we have historical evidence for.

So that is how Christian theists (apologists) can narrow down the playing field.
Kenisaw wrote: Since others have already asked you for your reasons why it is isn't possible for nature, I'll read that in your replies to those folks.
Possible for nature?

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Post #384

Post by Goat »

For_The_Kingdom wrote:
rikuoamero wrote: Of course, you're probably not aware of the problem of the Intelligent Design argument - namely, that if the universe WERE intelligently designed, it would be literally impossible for a human to show that it is such, and without being able to show one's work, any claim of an ID'd universe falls by the wayside.
I've already addressed this in another post. Penrose' calculations state the improbabilty of our universe being life permitting by random chance, and it aint happening in one try.
rikuoamero wrote: If the universe and everything in it were intelligently designed, how is this to be accomplished? If you hold up a rock that you claim is a part of an intelligently designed universe, do you have a rock formed purely from natural forces (i.e., not from your god) that I can use to compare and contrast?
I don't get it.
rikuoamero wrote: Oh and as an added challenge - the Intelligent Design argument analogy, if followed "correctly" leads to there being multiple intelligent designers, and never just the one.
Your challenge is to think about this and tell me why. I already know the answer. I want to see if you can figure it out.
I will tell you why it doesn't; Occams Razor.

Only one omnipotent designer is needed to explain the effect, so positing more intelligent designers is unwarranted. We do not need to posit beyond necessity.

That is the logical fallacy known as 'argument from numbers'. It fails to take into account several different factors, such as 'change is accumulative', and 'it's not random, because there is the way that chemistry works'. Those two factors make that calculations totally and utterly worthless.
“What do you think science is? There is nothing magical about science. It is simply a systematic way for carefully and thoroughly observing nature and using consistent logic to evaluate results. So which part of that exactly do you disagree with? Do you disagree with being thorough? Using careful observation? Being systematic? Or using consistent logic?�

Steven Novella

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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #385

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

rikuoamero wrote: To correct you (again) on that - life as we recognise it would not be possible (I don't think the word permissible fits in there). For all we know, a universe with different constants could have life but it could be something completely alien to our minds.
Fine, you can posit any kind of universe with a different set of laws, but guess what? Fine tuning would STILL be required for those universes as well. You can't negate the need for fine tuning just by positing different universes with life forms different than our own.

Second, that still doesn't negate astronomical improbability of THIS universe. That is similar to a man winning the lottery by overcoming the odds against him, and someone saying "Yeah, but if the rules and regulation of the lottery was different, someone else would have won".

Ok, and? That doesn't change the fact that the man overcame the odds that were against him based on THESE rules and regulations (the ones that allowed him to win).

Of course, the odds of our universe being life permitting isn't even a comparison to someone winning the lottery...I am just driving home the point that it doesn't matter about what would happen if; what matters is what actually happened.

And the odds are ready stacked AGAINST this universe enough, so much so that positing any other universe is unwarranted when you have this particular problem to figure out.
rikuoamero wrote: It is the height of arrogance to think that life as it exists on our planet is the
only way for life to occur, period, and therefore if the conditions for life are not as they are observed to be now, there therefore cannot be any life period.
Again, fine tuning is required regardless of where the life is, and where the life came from. If there is another universe out there with different sentient life forms or even a different set of natural laws, fine tuning is required.

Life isn't something you can just create in a lab from scratch (as we all know with the abiognesis problem). It takes certain engineering, certain precision, certain specification. All things that we DON'T have on such a large scale.

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Post #386

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

rikuoamero wrote: For someone who argues so strongly that there was a resurrection of Jesus, and who argues that this is because it is mentioned in the Gospels, you sure seem to know very little about them.
I may not know every thing about every thing, but I do know some things about some things. And last I checked, that is more than enough to get me by on here.
rikuoamero wrote: Gospel Mark originally had very little 'magic' in it - by 'magic', I mean 'magical' details such as a virgin birth.
So on one hand, its ok to criticize the Gospels for being too similar, but on the other hand, when one Gospel has info that the other(s) don't have, skeptics are equally critical?

It is a catch-22; damned if they do, damned if they don't.
rikuoamero wrote: As far as Mark was concerned, Jesus had normal human parents like the rest of humanity.
He had "normal" human parents in the other Gospels as well. Point?
rikuoamero wrote: Nor does the author even attempt to trace Jesus's lineage back to King David.
Maybe that wasn't the intent. Ever think about that?
rikuoamero wrote:
Also, have a read of this
The two oldest manuscripts of Mark 16 (from the 300s) then conclude with verse 8,[1] which ends with the women fleeing from the empty tomb, and saying "nothing to anyone, because they were afraid." Many scholars take 16:8 as the original ending and believe the longer ending (16:9-20) was a later addition.
from
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mark_16#P ... _Scenarios
I've already acknowledged that verses 9-20 were later additions.
rikuoamero wrote: Now think about that for a moment. Mark is considered by scholars to be the OLDEST or earliest of the gospels. And yet, the oldest manuscripts that we do have for Mark have NO resurrection of Jesus - just a man in white who announces it, but no actual appearance from Jesus himself.
The majority of scholars believe that verses 9-20 were not part of the original text, and were an addition by later Christians.

So now the claim 'Jesus rose from the dead' is on extremely shoddy grounds (not that it wasn't before!). You also clearly do not understand what an autobiography is. An autobiography is someone writing their OWN life story, which the Gospels most decidedly are not. We have no writings in Jesus's own hand.
Dude, first off, um, there were things that were said BEFORE verses 9-20...when the man at the tomb spoke to the frightened women, he said..

6 “Don’t be alarmed,� he said. “You are looking for Jesus the Nazarene, who was crucified. He has risen! He is not here. See the place where they laid him. 7 But go, tell his disciples and Peter, ‘He is going ahead of you into Galilee. There you will see him, just as he told you.’�

Do you see that. "He has risen"....and...."...Go to Galilee, there you will see him"

Keywords: "Risen." "See him"

The context is clear that Jesus had risen, and he was expected to be SEEN by APPOINTMENT in Galilee.

So while the narrative cuts short here, it is clear that Jesus was to be seen. Your failure to acknowledge this is disingenuous.

Third, I don't recall saying that the Gospels are autobiographies, so where you got that from, I don't know.
rikuoamero wrote: So for you, a resurrection happens when person A merely says that Person B has risen, there's no need for Person B to actually show up. For you, it's enough that Person A makes the claim.
Since you have just conceded that Mark doesn't contain any appearances from a risen Jesus, this then means that ALL we have to go on is the original claim by Paul.
That's it.
A man (Paul) is talking about a Resurrected Jesus before the biographies of Jesus even hit he streets....which means that the Resurrection tales of Jesus were spreading around long before the biographies of Jesus even hit the book shelves.

You are the one that keeps talking about how the earliest Gospel don't have post-mortem appearances...so your point is basically, the earlier the source, the better...well, I will counter that by giving an even earlier source than the one in question...from a guy that is independent of the Gospels. So you have an independent source from the Gospels, that is EARLIER than the Gospels. So what more do you want?

Now of course, your job is to keep moving the goal posts. So continue playing your part, bruh.
rikuoamero wrote: And claims CANNOT be used as evidence to justify a belief in the claims.
If the claims were actually believed by individuals who were in the position to validate or falsify the event in question, then the origin of their belief has to be explained, and believers think that the best explanation of their belief is that it is true.
rikuoamero wrote: So now, at this point in the discussion, the claim "Jesus rose from the dead" comes SOLELY from Paul's mention of it in 1 Corinthians and isn't backed up by ANYTHING else. There is no independent mention of this resurrection. The other Gospels (Matthew, Luke and John) do not count, since there is no way to verify that their authors made the claims without any knowledge of what Paul had said.
Ohh, so now all of a sudden we will posit that the Gospel writers may have used Paul as a source for their material? LOLLLL

I've heard it all. The Resurrection is mentioned in Paul's work, and all of the Gospels, even in Mark. When the man told the woman "He has risen", that is synonymous with "He has Resurrected".

And again, Tacitus stated that a mysterious superstition resulted in the aftermath of Jesus' death....which is undoubted implying the Resurrection.

This is good historical stuff.
rikuoamero wrote: Face it, Kingdom. You have nothing left to stand on. You have just acknowledged that Mark was edited and added onto, thus meaning that ANY claims found in Mark of a magical nature (such as a resurrection) are suspect and cannot be trusted. I can't trust what Gospel Mark reports about a resurrection when I learn that the mention of a post resurrection Jesus was originally NOT in Mark, but was added in later.
Dude, the part that wasn't added to still said "HE HAS RISEN", and was to APPEAR TO THEM. You are trying to throw the baby out with the bath water, and it ain't happening. A Resurrection is clearly evident, as the tomb was empty and they were told that Jesus had risen...and a post-mortem appearance implied.

And the other books gives the full Resurrection-Appearance narratives, and you can't just discount them as reliable because they have more information in them than the earliest book.

But keep on denying, my friend.

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Post #387

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

Kapyong wrote: Gday all,

For_The_Kingdom wrote: In other words, the book of Mark is the only one that he [Ignatius] didn't quote in the New Testament.
False.
Ignatius never once formally names a gospel, or says he quotes from one.

Instead he gives passages that are similar to SOME books of the NT :
G.Matthew, G.Luke, Acts, Romans, 1 Cor., Eph., and 1 Thess.

Ignatius certainly does NOT quote G.Mark or G.John or many other NT books.

Here is the evidence from NTcanon.org :
Image
http://www.ntcanon.org/table.shtml

Ignatius is the left column.

BTW - Ignatius says some very strange things, suggesting he is into magic mushrooms. No joke.
His writings are extremely corrupt, and were quite obviously forged - probably around the 130s.


Kapyong
Already addressed this.

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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #388

Post by Goat »

For_The_Kingdom wrote:
rikuoamero wrote: To correct you (again) on that - life as we recognise it would not be possible (I don't think the word permissible fits in there). For all we know, a universe with different constants could have life but it could be something completely alien to our minds.
Fine, you can posit any kind of universe with a different set of laws, but guess what? Fine tuning would STILL be required for those universes as well. You can't negate the need for fine tuning just by positing different universes with life forms different than our own.

Second, that still doesn't negate astronomical improbability of THIS universe. That is similar to a man winning the lottery by overcoming the odds against him, and someone saying "Yeah, but if the rules and regulation of the lottery was different, someone else would have won".

Ok, and? That doesn't change the fact that the man overcame the odds that were against him based on THESE rules and regulations (the ones that allowed him to win).

Of course, the odds of our universe being life permitting isn't even a comparison to someone winning the lottery...I am just driving home the point that it doesn't matter about what would happen if; what matters is what actually happened.

And the odds are ready stacked AGAINST this universe enough, so much so that positing any other universe is unwarranted when you have this particular problem to figure out.
rikuoamero wrote: It is the height of arrogance to think that life as it exists on our planet is the
only way for life to occur, period, and therefore if the conditions for life are not as they are observed to be now, there therefore cannot be any life period.
Again, fine tuning is required regardless of where the life is, and where the life came from. If there is another universe out there with different sentient life forms or even a different set of natural laws, fine tuning is required.

Life isn't something you can just create in a lab from scratch (as we all know with the abiognesis problem). It takes certain engineering, certain precision, certain specification. All things that we DON'T have on such a large scale.

This line are argument does not seem to correspond to what the concept of 'fine tuning' would be. It also fails to realize about how chemical reactions and filters would interact with each other when it comes to the abiogenesis hypotheses.
“What do you think science is? There is nothing magical about science. It is simply a systematic way for carefully and thoroughly observing nature and using consistent logic to evaluate results. So which part of that exactly do you disagree with? Do you disagree with being thorough? Using careful observation? Being systematic? Or using consistent logic?�

Steven Novella

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Re: Historical Evidence for the Resurrection (Again)

Post #389

Post by rikuoamero »

[Replying to post 382 by For_The_Kingdom]
Natural law does NOT apply to those things. Those things owe their existence to something BEYOND nature, and I am here to demonstrate why this MUST be the case.
The problem here is one of showing your work, like in primary school math class. If you're now throwing out the tools of science (i.e. empiricism) then what do you use to verify a claim made? "Oh it's the Christian God that's responsible for this list of 5 things" "Ok, cool, how do you justify your claim and how do you verify it" "Uh...I don't. I don't use science"
.you recognize the physical constants and the precision needed to keep things balanced...yet you are not asking yourself "where did all of this order and structure come from", among any of the other dozens of questions one will ask if he/she considers the entire game, not just one quarter or inning.
I'm pretty sure Kenisaw is like me, and HAS asked those questions. However, unlike you, we're careful not to propose an answer to those questions UNLESS we can back it up, and this means evidence.
If space, time, energy, and matter (STEM) began to exist, then doesn't it follow that whatever gave STEM its beginning is NOT itself a produce of STEM?
Even if this statement were true, it does NOTHING to identify the whatever it was.
All it takes is for at least ONE of those arguments to be true in order the atheistic/naturalistic worldview to be negated.
Correct
Second, arguments like the argument based on the existence of objective morality; an argument like that makes the case for a PERSONAL being.
And the god that you propose fails that test. Just look at the Old Testament. The OT describes a god so violent and bloodthirsty that user Claire Evans on this site has said that the god described in the OT has nothing whatsoever to do with the 'real' God.
And third, the argument based on the Historicity of the Resurrection, that makes a case for a very SPECIFIC God, and if that argument is true, then we can just shave off all other gods and focus on the one for which we have historical evidence for.
You do what I've seen countless times. You say "if it is true". Well, can you actually support that IF statement, show it to actually be true? I think not, because the resurrection is NOT founded on good evidence.
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Post #390

Post by For_The_Kingdom »

Kapyong wrote:
Hmmm, what ?

This is obviously NOT a quote at all.
When it comes to quotes, there are direct quotes, and indirect quotes. Do you see the difference?
Kapyong wrote: Ignatius does NOT say "according to the Gospel of Luke" ...
Right, because he was talking to an audience that was already familiar with the Gospel, so he didn't need to say "according to the Gospel of Luke", in the same way that Dr. Frederick K.C. Price, a Word Faith pastor; when he finishes his televised sermons, he ends with "And remember, we walk by faith, and not by sight".

He says this after ever telecast, and those that are familiar with the bible already know that we walk by faith, and not by sight is from 2 Corin 5:7. This is common knowledge among Bible believers, and he doesn't need to announce it every time.

But getting back to the Ignatius/Luke...when Ignatius mentioned it, you can tell that he said it in a sort of "matter of factly" or "off the cusp" kind of way. The audience knew what he was talking about.

And not only that, but Jesus HIMSELF quoted frequently from the OT without giving the audience the reference to the quote...the audience knew what he was talking about. So it should come as no surprise that Ignatius didn't, either.
Kapyong wrote: The words in Ignatius are different to Luke.
Again, there are direct quotes, and indirect quotes...do you see the difference?
Kapyong wrote: Ignatius never ONCE even mentions Luke.
President Obama's 2008 campaign slogan was "yes, we can"...and he said this throughout his campaign without mentioning Caesar Chavez, who was the inspiration of the slogan. So because Obama didn't mention Chavez, therefore, the words weren't inspired by Chavez?

Non sequitur.
Kapyong wrote: Instead - Ignatius knows the STORY, that is also found in G.Luke.
So basically, two guys who don't know each other are telling the exact same story about a specific event that neither of them witnessed? Got it.
Kapyong wrote: Do you see the difference?
Do you see the difference between a direct & indirect quote?

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