Can any moral document be objective?

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BeHereNow
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Can any moral document be objective?

Post #1

Post by BeHereNow »

From another thread:
Wouldn't it be nice to have a nice objective handbook for everyone to have?
First part: Can any moral or religious document be objective in the values it presents? Please explain.
Part two (optional): If you answered yes, you may chose any particular document and defend it as being objective.
If you answered no, you may choose any particular document and use it as an example of why moral documents are subjective.
Part three (optional): If you answered no objective document is possible, but it were magically possible, would you want it?

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Re: Can any moral document be objective?

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Post by bluethread »

RightReason wrote:
One of the 10 commandments is do not steal. That is an objective truth. We may get to decide if we will accept the truth, but our acceptance or non acceptance doesn’t change the truth.
That is not true, unless one is simply talking about definitional consistency. It is common for people to take what they have not earned. In fact, our present culture encourages that. So, in that sense, the commandment does not apply in our culture. However, if one argues that it is not stealing because it is defined as legal and institutional, then it is not objective, but constitutional, i.e. subject to a social contract. In fact, the ten commandments are not objective morality, they are part of a social contract and therefore constitutional.

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Post #12

Post by RightReason »

[Replying to bluethread]
When it comes to morality the objective/subjective dichotomy is a false choice. Morality is a social construct.
I disagree. Morality is not constructed – it is determined or recognized if you will.

Can you give me an example of rape being Good?
Those who argue for an intrinsic morality are attempting a cheap cheat, because they do not wish to examine the true basis of their moral standards.
I will examine the true basis of moral standards – THE WORLD WE LIVE IN

There is a natural law to which all men are subject, whether he/she admits it or not.

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Re: Can any moral document be objective?

Post #13

Post by Subjectivity »

RightReason wrote:Those things are not wrong because the Church says they are wrong, rather the Church must declare them wrong because they are wrong. They are objectively immoral. Again, not because the Bible says they are, rather because man in his reason, being an observer of life, acknowledging the way the world works and understanding man’s relationship with this world, can conclude the above behaviors are not right/good/in man’s best interest. This reasoning is based on science, logic, biology, facts etc. IOW, on externals
Is man, in his so-called reason, an objective observer of the universe? Is human experience not inherently subjective, such that no human that ever sensed or observed or reasoned can have known to have glimpsed reality? When 4.5 billion subjective observers independently arrive at identical conclusions about the nature of reality, can it be concluded with intellectual honesty that reality has been objectively observed? Or is it accurate to say that we have simply gathered evidence of reality? Weighing evidence for and coming to a reasoned position on specific claims of morality is very different to having an objective understanding of moral truths, and it seems to me you've made the logical error of equating evidence of reality with knowledge of reality.
RightReason wrote:Is there anyone here who thinks bulimia is right or good? I think most people would agree that the act of purposely eating large quantities of food and then purposely making oneself vomit so as not to have to deal with the consequences (calories) of eating said food is wrong.
Does the proportion of people who make a given claim in any way influence the veracity of that claim? If enough people believe something, does reality conform to their belief? Or is reality something that exists independently of observation and reasoning? What is the relationship, if any, between 1) the number of people who believe something to be real and 2) reality, itself?

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Post #14

Post by bluethread »

RightReason wrote: [Replying to bluethread]
When it comes to morality the objective/subjective dichotomy is a false choice. Morality is a social construct.
I disagree. Morality is not constructed – it is determined or recognized if you will.

Can you give me an example of rape being Good?


Some sex is designated as rape by social contract. If not, there would be no arguing regarding what constitutes rape and such arguing does exist.
Those who argue for an intrinsic morality are attempting a cheap cheat, because they do not wish to examine the true basis of their moral standards.
I will examine the true basis of moral standards – THE WORLD WE LIVE IN

There is a natural law to which all men are subject, whether he/she admits it or not.
That is the empirical standard. Not only do not all accept that standard, not all empiricists agree regarding the nature of the world we live in. I hold to the constitutional morality that I accept, because I believe it best fits "THE WORLD WE LIVE IN". However, that does not make the morality I accept objective. If nothing else, it is subject to "THE WORLD WE LIVE IN", as I have repeatedly attempted to point out to those who think that deities are subject to the same morality as humans are. Also, If you haven't noticed, almost every moral standard that humans accept is ignored by at least some other life form. So, IMO, "THE WORLD WE LIVE IN" hardly argues for a truly objective morality.

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Post #15

Post by Subjectivity »

RightReason wrote:Show me a culture that values rape. Also, even if you could find some subculture that engaged in rape, THAT wouldn’t mean rape is right or good. It would simply mean that culture is wrong. All people can know right from wrong, regardless of religion.
Your argument appears to be that if most people believe something, it is true, and the minority who don't believe it are incorrect in their belief. Does belief influence truth, or are you suggesting that because there are majority positions on questions of morality, that is evidence of the existence of absolute moral truths? In what way does believing something serve as evidence for the truth of what is believed? Validity of the evidence aside, you then appear to make a mental leap from having evidence of the existence of absolute moral truths to having knowledge of said truths, and how you got there is a mystery to me.

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Re: Can any moral document be objective?

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Post by ttruscott »

marco wrote:The people of Sodom and Gomorrah were uniformly bad. Is this even possible. Were children also bad?
To be subject to death, they have to be sinners, ie, morally bad. No holy angel suffers and dies.
And the good and just Lot offered his daughters to be raped. In whose eyes was this action good?
In no one's eyes. Peter denied Christ three times. Paul persecuted Christ's church unto death. David consorted with Bathsheba and had her husband murdered. And Moses too was a murderer. Mark 2:17 On hearing this, Jesus said to them, "It is not the healthy who need a doctor, but the sick. I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners." All the sinful saints can be called by their end state as righteous even while still in their sins, that is, righteous doesn't always carry a moral connotation but is sometimes a status word pointing the person out as one of the sinful elect.
And is it possible that an entire people, the Jews, asked that judgment be placed on the heads of unborn Jewish generations? For centuries Jews have suffered because of this calumny against them. Christian morality relies a lot on lies, it would seem.
All sin is built from lies and the sins of Christians as individuals and as a church congregation are also built on lies. Sinners are not different from each other just because some sit on a pew on Sundays.

The Jews perhaps did not earn the curse of GOD though they gave Christ over to be sentenced but by rejecting Him they certainly proved their idolatry of their religion over YHWH and earned the curses of Deuteronomy 28:15–68, which they struggled against for centuries. That Christians were indulging in their own sinfulness when persecuting the Jews is moot, in GOD's eyes Israel was corrupt enough to destroy.
PCE Theology as I see it...

We had an existence with a free will in Sheol before the creation of the physical universe. Here we chose to be able to become holy or to be eternally evil in YHWH's sight. Then the physical universe was created and all sinners were sent to earth.

This theology debunks the need to base Christianity upon the blasphemy of creating us in Adam's sin.

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Re: Can any moral document be objective?

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Post by bluethread »

ttruscott wrote:
The Jews perhaps did not earn the curse of GOD though they gave Christ over to be sentenced but by rejecting Him they certainly proved their idolatry of their religion over YHWH and earned the curses of Deuteronomy 28:15–68, which they struggled against for centuries. That Christians were indulging in their own sinfulness when persecuting the Jews is moot, in GOD's eyes Israel was corrupt enough to destroy.
The same can be said about LDS history. One needs to be careful in speaking of destruction. It is true that Israel was scattered, as were the LDS, but Adonai has not given up on Israel.

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Re: Can any moral document be objective?

Post #18

Post by RightReason »

[Replying to Subjectivity]
Is man, in his so-called reason, an objective observer of the universe?
Yes. We learn by observation. It is a scientific approach. If a dog walks into a room, we can conclude that a dog walked into the room, even if one person didn’t see it or saw what they thought was something else. The scientific consensus shows a dog walked into the room. This does not mean the group decided that a dog walked into the room or constructed that a dog walked into a room. The scientific approach of observation merely confirms it.

Is human experience not inherently subjective
Experience is, but the fact that the heart pumps blood is not subjective, eating more calories than one burns causes weight gain is not subjective, children from fatherless homes are more likely to be poor or become involved in drugs is not subjective, etc.
When 4.5 billion subjective observers independently arrive at identical conclusions about the nature of reality, can it be concluded with intellectual honesty that reality has been objectively observed? Or is it accurate to say that we have simply gathered evidence of reality? Weighing evidence for and coming to a reasoned position on specific claims of morality is very different to having an objective understanding of moral truths, and it seems to me you've made the logical error of equating evidence of reality with knowledge of reality.
I do not think I have made that error. Is it intellectually honest to suggest rape could ever be right/good? Who has decided that it is wrong to eat too much food and then make oneself throw up? Isn’t it intellectually dishonest to pretend that is simply a social construct rather than a moral truth and something all men can know? And how do we know it? By acknowledging the way the world works, by observing man and his relationship with this world we live in, by using reason and logic, science, and facts.

Does the proportion of people who make a given claim in any way influence the veracity of that claim?
Not at all and that is my point. The wrongness of bulimia is not because a large group of people have decided it is wrong. My point was all men can know it is wrong via reason and observation. It isn’t something we have to be told.

RightReason wrote:


[Replying to bluethread]

Quote:
When it comes to morality the objective/subjective dichotomy is a false choice. Morality is a social construct.


I disagree. Morality is not constructed – it is determined or recognized if you will.

Can you give me an example of rape being Good?

Some sex is designated as rape by social contract. If not, there would be no arguing regarding what constitutes rape and such arguing does exist.
Sorry, I do not understand this comment.
Quote:

Quote:
Those who argue for an intrinsic morality are attempting a cheap cheat, because they do not wish to examine the true basis of their moral standards.


I will examine the true basis of moral standards – THE WORLD WE LIVE IN

There is a natural law to which all men are subject, whether he/she admits it or not.


That is the empirical standard. Not only do not all accept that standard, not all empiricists agree regarding the nature of the world we live in. I hold to the constitutional morality that I accept, because I believe it best fits "THE WORLD WE LIVE IN". However, that does not make the morality I accept objective. If nothing else, it is subject to "THE WORLD WE LIVE IN", as I have repeatedly attempted to point out to those who think that deities are subject to the same morality as humans are.
I hear this argument attempted and I always find it intellecutally dishonest. It amounts to playing the philosophy card. If we are both in a room with a table between us and I say can you atleast admit there is a table in the room and you say, "How do we know the table is really there? In fact, how do we know any of us are really here?" You go on to suggest your reality may be different than my reality. A little like when someone is stoned and they say, "How do I know the color blue you see is the same color blue I see." It may sound quite profound but there is a nonsense to it. And a dishonesty in not being able to admit or acknowledge what we both know.

"The great march of mental destruction will go on. Everything will be denied. Everything will become a creed. It is a reasonable position to deny the stones in the street; it will be a religious dogma to assert them. It is a rational thesis that we are all in a dream; it will be a mystical sanity to say that we are all awake. Fires will be kindled to testify that two and two make four. Swords will be drawn to prove that leaves are green in summer. We shall be left defending, not only the incredible virtues and sanities of human life, but something more incredible still, this huge impossible universe which stares us in the face. We shall fight for visible prodigies as if they were invisible. We shall look on the impossible grass and the skies with a strange courage. We shall be of those who have seen and yet have believed.� -Chesterton

Also, If you haven't noticed, almost every moral standard that humans accept is ignored by at least some other life form.


What other life forms? Plants and animals? They can’t reason and are not the same as human beings so different laws apply to them – duh.
So, IMO, "THE WORLD WE LIVE IN" hardly argues for a truly objective morality.
On the contrary – that is precisely what argues for an objective morality. We all are human beings and we all live in the same world and we all are subject to the same natural laws of this world we live in. I didn't design the world or decide how it operates, but I have to aknowledge it.

Your argument appears to be that if most people believe something, it is true, and the minority who don't believe it are incorrect in their belief
Not at all. I am arguing the very opposite. Rape, oppression are wrong regardless of any group or individual you could find to argue otherwise.

In what way does believing something serve as evidence for the truth of what is believed?
You misunderstand. If I say something like all men know the wrongness of rape this is not the same as saying since all men agree rape is wrong, rape must be wrong. Rather, I am saying knowing that rape is wrong is something that all can know.

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Re: Can any moral document be objective?

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Post by Bust Nak »

RightReason wrote: I disagree. The question is can a moral or religious document be objective?
And the answer is no.
Of course, because truth is objective. In fact, it is illogical to not see truth as objective. To declare there is not such thing as objective truth is self contradicting.
Who here has denied such a thing as objective truth? Not I.
Show me a culture that values rape. Also, even if you could find some subculture that engaged in rape, THAT wouldn’t mean rape is right or good.
And if I could not find a culture that values rape, THAT wouldn’t mean rape is objectively right or good, so your challenge is entirely irrelevant.
It would simply mean that culture is wrong. All people can know right from wrong, regardless of religion.
You are appealing to the beliefs of people - that's subjectivism. You are affirming my thesis and undermining yours.
The fact that different cultures or people sometimes get it wrong does not mean right and wrong are subjective.
And the fact many different cultures or people mostly agree on what is and isn't moral does not mean right and wrong are objective.
"Men do not differ much about what things they will call evils; they differ enormously about what evils they will call excusable." - G.K. Chesterton
Cool quote, he is correct.
One of the 10 commandments is do not steal. That is an objective truth. We may get to decide if we will accept the truth, but our acceptance or non acceptance doesn’t change the truth.
Oh? Prove it is an objective truth. Looks subjective to me.

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Post #20

Post by Bust Nak »

bluethread wrote: When it comes to morality the objective/subjective dichotomy is a false choice. Morality is a social construct. It is contractual, either presumed or explicit. I, therefore, hold that all true morality is constitutional. Those who argue for an intrinsic morality are attempting a cheap cheat, because they do not wish to examine the true basis of their moral standards.
Morality is either intrinsic or not intrinsic, this is a true dichotomy and the law of excluded middle applies here. Sounds like your stance is that morality is not intrinsic - that is moral subjectivism.

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