Is it really impossible to get something from nothing?

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Is it really impossible to get something from nothing?

Post #1

Post by Furrowed Brow »

You cannot get owt from nowt!

This looks like plain old common sense. :-k

But lets look at this from a logical point of view.

If we take Occam's principle: entities should not be multiplied beyond necessity.

Twist it around a bit to get get: principles should not be multiplied beyond necessity.

Take a few moments to absorb that last thought and then cast an eye over the next two definitions.

Def 1: nothing = no things and no principles.
Def 2: nothing = no things and the principle "you cannot get something from nothing".

The first question is: where did the "you can't get owt from nowt" rule come from? Is this a principle that belongs to logic or empiricism?

I say it is empirical.:yes:

The second question: is not def 1 a more minimal possibility than Def 2 and therefore closer to being absolute nothing.

I say it is.:yes:

Third question: Is Def 1 useful or is it just baloney?

I think it might be useful, would like to argue it is :2gun: , so is there anyone who thinks it is baloney and can give some reasons why? (If anyone can see a use for it that would be cool).

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Re: Is it really impossible to get something from nothing?

Post #2

Post by Confused »

Furrowed Brow wrote:You cannot get owt from nowt!

This looks like plain old common sense. :-k

But lets look at this from a logical point of view.

If we take Occam's principle: entities should not be multiplied beyond necessity.

Twist it around a bit to get get: principles should not be multiplied beyond necessity.

Take a few moments to absorb that last thought and then cast an eye over the next two definitions.

Def 1: nothing = no things and no principles.
Def 2: nothing = no things and the principle "you cannot get something from nothing".

The first question is: where did the "you can't get owt from nowt" rule come from? Is this a principle that belongs to logic or empiricism?

I say it is empirical.:yes:

The second question: is not def 1 a more minimal possibility than Def 2 and therefore closer to being absolute nothing.

I say it is.:yes:

Third question: Is Def 1 useful or is it just baloney?

I think it might be useful, would like to argue it is :2gun: , so is there anyone who thinks it is baloney and can give some reasons why? (If anyone can see a use for it that would be cool).

Ok, I will take a stab at it, but I doubt it is what you are looking for.

1) Theoretical empiricism, but I have a physics friend who likes an old quote (I forget where he got it from) that goes something like this: you cant get something from nothing unless someone, somewhere, sometime is getting nothing from something.
2) Occams Razor-Parsimony principle says that if T1 postulates fewer entities that T2, then T1 is most likely true since it is simplest. So I would say def 2 is more likely.
3) def 1 is useful to show how one can make the simple complex leading to more entities and false conslusions.

Ok, you may now smack me upside the head.
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Post #3

Post by Furrowed Brow »

Furrow Brow says in voice not unlike Basil Fawlty as he is about to thrash his car. “Right Confused. You asked for this. You are not going to get the thrashing of your life.”

No sorry. Do I come across as belligerent on some of my other posts? Or is that I've just discovered emoticons.

Anyway. Pleased to meet you. :wave:

Confused says.
OK, I will take a stab at it, but I doubt it is what you are looking for.

1) Theoretical empiricism, but I have a physics friend who likes an old quote (I forget where he got it from) that goes something like this: you cant get something from nothing unless someone, somewhere, sometime is getting nothing from something.
OK. I’d say empirical. Looks like we agree on that.

To your friend my first response would be: So If someone did get something from nothing then everyone else would get nothing from something. Lucky someone. Unlucky everyone else. However, in a way there is a truth in your friend’s quote that probably finds its roots in Newton’s every action has an equal and opposite reaction. Or the principle of conservation of energy.

So perhaps the originator of the quote should have said: you get something from nothing unless someone else, somewhere, sometime, is losing an equal amount of something.

And I think that kind of proposition expresses more formally why you can’t get owt from nowt. However there is one case in physics where this is apparently so. And I’ll come on to that in a moment.

Confused says:
2) Occams Razor-Parsimony principle says that if T1 postulates fewer entities that T2, then T1 is most likely true since it is simplest. So I would say def. 2 is more likely.
Occam’s Razor says:entities should not be multiplied beyond necessity. So it defines the simplest explanation as the simplest necessary to explain. Not the simplest per se. I have been is a tussle previously with a creationist who thought materialists had hijacked Occam's Razor and were using it to serve their own prejudices. Whilst if used correctly as he suggested then Darwinism would have to be axed. Of course I disagreed.

In a nut shell this creationist's point amounted to: God is the simplest explanation of creation, because all you need is God. Occam’s razor duly applied.

Well no.

That kind of explanation is not really as simple as it might seem. You get questions like how, and by what means, and what about the evidence? When you pick away at those things get messy. Then the premises have to explain the observations. So ad hoc premises are added like he put the fossils there, or the fossils are not really fossils, or the fossils are not as old as they look, and then you get further assertions like the dating methods must be wrong and so on. I don’t mean to beat up creationist in this thread but are an easy to hand example that serve to make a point.

And no to say in the real world science does not go though a similar process of sifting the evidence with the prejudices of their theory, and staves of the cut of the razor for as long as it can, but eventually there is an ill defined threshold where Occam’s Razor kicks in and science moves away from one theory onto a better one because the old theory is just too scarred.

Perhaps we need to sharpen up Occam’s Razor.

How about: entities should not be multiplied beyond necessity to explain the evidence, and the theory that meets with Occam’s Razor best is the theory with the fewest number of ad hoc assertions left over still needed to explain the evidence.

The problem with that defintion is we could simply move all the ad hoc assertions into our set of premises. thus no left over ad hoc assertions. However I'm sure if I commited another 500 words or so something better could be worked out.

Has there been a debate on Occam’s Razor? Has OccamsRazor got a point of view?

Confused says
3) def. 1 is useful to show how one can make the simple complex leading to more entities and false conclusions.
From 3) it seems clear you are rejecting old Occam. Can you clarify why?

I think you are right when you say def. 1 is useful to show how one can make the simple complex by leading to more entities. But does it really lead to false conclusions?

Is your point against the kind of philosophy where one starts to argue about the existence of monads (leibniz) or infinitesimal (Newton) but actually end up talking nonsense? If so I’m not in disagreement.

I don’t want to posit anymore metaphysical entities if I can help it. I’d like to only posit virtual particles. Which are already apart of the lore of quantum mechanics.
Quantum Mechanics says Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle permits the creation of what are dubbed virtual particles, and due to the fact they eventually self annihilate before their permit runs out, and conservation of energy is not flouted, quantum physicists are accepting of this. Put another way: Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle opens up a window of opportunity for virtual particles to pop into existence, say hi gotta dash, and then disappear before the window closes.

This post was partially a reaction to an argument Metacrock has been trying to develop. An argument that goes something like, quantum physics claim that virtual particles pop into existence from nothing is false/illogical.

Virtual particles do not contradict the laws of physics otherwise quantum physicist would not be posting them. But do they contravene any logical law? Well they contradict a law like you can’t get owt from nowt. If Def. 2 is correct then it seems there needs to be something “prior” for virtual particles to pop out of. And if there is something prior, how did that come about, and then how did that come about and so on.

If def. 2 is correct then an infinite causal regress is threatened, or one is forced into metaphysics like that attempted by St Anselm, and Metacrock in these pages. If Def. 1 is correct then it is not, and you don’t need the metaphysics. In this sense simple is more simple.

So I guess I am hoping Def. 1 could be a way of bringing any threat of an infinite regress to an end. We do not then need Anselm’s first self causing cause, or Metacrock’s necessary God. And we would gain a definition of nothing that would suit Quantum mechanics.

All that said, is does Def. 1, really a good idea? Does it solve the problems I hope it solves?
OK, you may now smack me upside the head.
No no! I’m going to thank you. :D I thought no one was ever going to reply

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Post #4

Post by Confused »

QED would be so much better at this than me. But here I go again:
Furrowed Brow
Confused says
Quote:
3) def. 1 is useful to show how one can make the simple complex leading to more entities and false conclusions.


From 3) it seems clear you are rejecting old Occam. Can you clarify why?

I think you are right when you say def. 1 is useful to show how one can make the simple complex by leading to more entities. But does it really lead to false conclusions?
The more complex an assertion and the more entities attributed to that assertion, the more opportunities for mistakes to be made and logical fallacies to occur. This is my only justification for my assumption. I am not rejecting Occam, I am simply reiterating that the simpler the solution the more accurate the answer. I had an old physics intructor who loved to use the acronym KISS: Keep It Simple Stupid. Never quite forgot that.
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Post #5

Post by QED »

Sorry, it struck me a while ago when debating this same issue (I think it was a topic called "Can there be such a thing as nothing") just how utterly remote philosophy could be from actuality. Since then I've been trying to reconcile language based logic with the world revealed at the Quantum scale. The latter is experimentally confirmed as the actuality of the world while the former remains stubbornly wedded to the (nonetheless, often useful) illusions offered by the classical world. My confidence levels are therefore vanishingly small when it comes to basing any conclusions on purely philosophical exercises.

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Post #6

Post by Furrowed Brow »

Hi QED :wave:

You say,
Sorry, it struck me a while ago when debating this same issue (I think it was a topic called "Can there be such a thing as nothing") just how utterly remote philosophy could be from actuality.
I think it is probably the case that philosophy is only useful for untying the knots already tied by philosophers.

I thunk up Def 1 in order to untie or rather stave off the knots tied by guys like St Anselm and Metacrock. Arguments of the general form, causality falls into an infinite regress, unless you can get owt from nowt, and that ain't possible, so there must be a god because that's the only answer that makes sense.

You also say:
Since then I've been trying to reconcile language based logic with the world revealed at the Quantum scale.
This is a whole subject unto itself and probably deserves it own separate thread. But I think the logic of language reveals the logic of how we think. so the question becomes does reality obey the same logic or a different kind of logic to thought? And I don't know the answer to that but I'd say we are material beings therefore our brains are only limited by the laws and interactions of physics. Whether the rules of thought are a sub section of a larger set of rules, or extend to include all the rules of reality is then the question. Answer: don't know. :confused2:

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Post #7

Post by Confused »

QED wrote:Sorry, it struck me a while ago when debating this same issue (I think it was a topic called "Can there be such a thing as nothing") just how utterly remote philosophy could be from actuality. Since then I've been trying to reconcile language based logic with the world revealed at the Quantum scale. The latter is experimentally confirmed as the actuality of the world while the former remains stubbornly wedded to the (nonetheless, often useful) illusions offered by the classical world. My confidence levels are therefore vanishingly small when it comes to basing any conclusions on purely philosophical exercises.
Thanks for joining. I knew your input would help more than mine. I am very limited on this area.

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Post #8

Post by Furrowed Brow »

Hi Confused,

You say
I am not rejecting Occam, I am simply reiterating that the simpler the solution the more accurate the answer. I had an old physics intructor who loved to use the acronym KISS: Keep It Simple Stupid. Never quite forgot that.
KISS is good I think. Sadly I think most quantum physicists would love to keep it simple, but nature will not let them. For philosophy and metaphysics I'd say definitely yes.

The objective of Def1 is to keep things simple. But have I succeeded? :-k

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Post #9

Post by Confused »

Furrowed Brow wrote:Hi Confused,

You say
I am not rejecting Occam, I am simply reiterating that the simpler the solution the more accurate the answer. I had an old physics intructor who loved to use the acronym KISS: Keep It Simple Stupid. Never quite forgot that.
KISS is good I think. Sadly I think most quantum physicists would love to keep it simple, but nature will not let them. For philosophy and metaphysics I'd say definitely yes.

The objective of Def1 is to keep things simple. But have I succeeded? :-k
Nope. Your failure came the minute you included a def 2 as well as asked for opinions. It negated KISS from the get go. But QED is much better versed in this. I know enough to feel my way around or to know where to look to find the information, but QED knows it by heart and understands it as well. Anything with math defies KISS. Even metaphysics has its issues with KISS.
What we do for ourselves dies with us,
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and is immortal.

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Post #10

Post by QED »

Furrowed Brow wrote:Hi QED :wave:
Hello from down in deepest Dorset! (pronounced Dharzit :lol: )
Furrowed Brow wrote: I think it is probably the case that philosophy is only useful for untying the knots already tied by philosophers.
And for stimulating empirical investigations. After all, philosophizing led Einstein to his relativity theories, and one by one the predictions were found to hold good. In this sense philosophizing about cosmological origins is all well and good so long as it throws up something that can be empirically tested to show us that we're not just looking at a self-consistent but ultimately imaginary mental construct.
Furrowed Brow wrote: I thunk up Def 1 in order to untie or rather stave off the knots tied by guys like St Anselm and Metacrock. Arguments of the general form, causality falls into an infinite regress, unless you can get owt from nowt, and that ain't possible, so there must be a god because that's the only answer that makes sense.
As if that even made sense in a purely philosophical context. One could seemingly conjure-up anything one liked out of such an argument. Although as I hope I have made clear I wouldn't subscribe to such an argument, it nonetheless strikes me that the most parsimonious thing to emerge would be something that some might wish to call a creation, rather than a creator which then goes on to conjure-up said creation. However, this isn't the topic of your debate.
Furrowed Brow wrote: This is a whole subject unto itself and probably deserves it own separate thread. But I think the logic of language reveals the logic of how we think. so the question becomes does reality obey the same logic or a different kind of logic to thought? And I don't know the answer to that but I'd say we are material beings therefore our brains are only limited by the laws and interactions of physics. Whether the rules of thought are a sub section of a larger set of rules, or extend to include all the rules of reality is then the question. Answer: don't know. :confused2:
According to Penrose there are some tricks that the mind can perform which are impossible to recreate with any conceivable algorithm. However, the organization of minds is something that can be seen evolving over time from far humbler beginnings. As yet unknown material processes would seem to be at work as evidenced by such mysteries as why an inert gas like Xenon is an effective anaesthetic. Material interactions like this are providing interesting clues about the nature of conscious thought and how it may relate to Quantum effects within certain atomic structures.

Regular logic seems to be based on things like counterfactuals and identities observed in the classical world. So why would arguments constructed with these basic ingredients be expected to work properly when developing ideas applicable to the physics that actually makes up our world?

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