This is a clear: fully God, fully man situation.https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... ersion=ESV
Philippians 2:5-11
English Standard Version
5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,[a] 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
However, depending on your Christian persuasion, there are some questions for you:
How can Jesus be in the form of God but not be God?
How can Jesus be in the form of a man but not a man?
If Jesus is not God, are you really going to bow down to a not God creature?
But mainly question 2. If Jesus cannot grab equality with God why would it phrase it as if He could grab it? So could Jesus have grasped equality with God or not?
if Jesus could have grasped equality with God then he is equal to God. Which dialect of Christianity is going to argue that Jesus could have been equal to God but chose not to but He is not God?
Let's put it this way. Suppose there was Thor's hammer and only the ones who are worthy can pick it up. That means everyone that can pick it up, regardless of whether they do pick it up are equally worthy of holding the hammer.
If Jesus could not have grasped equality then why is that statement in the Bible?
It sure seems like the statement is there in the Bible to show that Jesus could have been equal to God but chose not to.