How many people did God directly kill in the Old Testament?

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dangerdan
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How many people did God directly kill in the Old Testament?

Post #1

Post by dangerdan »

10000?
100000?
1000000?
10000000?

I suppose The Flood would really pump up the figure.

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bernee51
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Gods Hit List

Post #2

Post by bernee51 »

You can do the math

God's Hit List (those murdered by God directly or by his orders):

The entire population of the earth except for eight survivors (Genesis 7:23).
Every inhabitant of Sodom and Gomorrah except for one family (Genesis 19:24).
Every first born of Egypt (Exodus 12:29).
All the hosts of the Pharaoh, including the captains of 600 chariots (Exodus 14:27,28).
Amalek and his people (Exodus 17:11,16).
3,000 Israelites (Exodus 32:27).
250 Levite princes who had challenged the leadership of Moses (Numbers 16:1-40).
14,700 Jews in a plague who had rebelled against Moses following the killing of the princes (Numbers 16:41-49).
All the subjects of Og (Numbers 21:34, 35).
24,000 Israelites who lived with Moabite women (Numbers 25:4, 9).
All the males, kings, and non-virgin females of the Midianites. (Numbers 31:7, 8).
The Ammonites (Deuteronomy 2:19-21).
The Horims (Deuteronomy 2:22).
All the citizens of Jericho, except for a prostitute and her family (Joshua 6).
12,000 citizens of Ai. Joshua hung the king on a tree. (Joshua 8:1-30).
All the people of Makkedah (Joshua 10:28).
All the people of Libnah (Joshua 10:29, 30).
All the people of Gezer (Joshua 10:33).
All the people of Lachish (Joshua 10:32).
All the people of Eglon (Joshua 10:34, 35).
All the people of Hebron (Joshua 10:36, 37).
All the inhabitants of the country of the hills, and of the south, and of the vale, and of the springs and all their kings (Joshua 10:40).
All 31 kings and inhabitants of their countries, and the south country, and the land of Goshen, and the valley, and the plain, and the mountain of Israel, and the valley of the same from Mt. Halak to Mt. Hermon (Joshua 11:12, 16, 17, 12:24).
10,000 Moabites (Judges 3:29).
10,000 Perizzites and Canaanites (Judges 1:4).
600 Phillistines (Judges 3:31).
All of Sisera (Judges 4:16).
120,000 Midianites (Judges 8:10).
25,100 Benjaminites (Judges 20:35).
50,070 people of Bethshemesh (I Samuel 6:19).
All the Amalekites (I Samuel 15:3, 7).
The armies and five kings of the Amorites (Amos 3:2).
The Moabites and 22,000 Syrians (II Samuel 8:2, 5, 6, 14).
40,000 Syrian horsemen (II Samuel 10:18).
100,000 Syrian footmen, followed by 27,000 who were crushed by a wall (I Kings 20:28, 29, 30).
42 children eaten by bears (II Kings 2:23, 24).
185,000 Assyrians killed by an angel (II Kings 19:35).
10,000 Edomites, followed by 10,000 more whose killers brought them to the top of the rock, and cast them down from the top of the rock, that they were broken in pieces. (II Chronicles 28).
120,000 Judeans (II Chronicles 28).
75,000 Persians (Esther 9:16).
:!:

dangerdan
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Post #3

Post by dangerdan »

:shock:

dangerdan
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Post #4

Post by dangerdan »

Well, this thread was short lived…pardon the pun.

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DTho
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Post #5

Post by DTho »

Re: How Many People Did God Directly [or Indirectly] "Kill" in the OT?

Dunno. Alot, I'd assume. (I have neither the patience, nor the skill, to "do the math") . . .

The question, as I see it, is not how many people did God "murder" (I assume, perhaps incorrectly, that the word murder better represents the intention behind the question than does the word kill), but, did God have the right to kill anyone at all, i.e., is God even capable of murder, i.e., do "our" lives belong to us . . . or to God?

The question, as stated (I believe), demands that the reader accept the fact that God is a murderer (with no right whatsoever to deprive "the living" of "their" lives); that God is subject to our infallible human judgments; that God revels in the destruction of we humans; et cetera . . .

Is it, or is it not, "God's universe; God's rules?" Does our existence (life) belong to us, or to God? Does God, or does God not, have the right to "snuff" us whenever God sees fit? Is God a "righteous judge" or a mean-spirited, vain, childish being with a heinous superiority complex and an insatiable lust for blood?

Again, I dunno (for sure).

What, if I may respectfully ask, was the purpose/point of the question (not that the questioner needs one)?

-DTho

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ST88
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Post #6

Post by ST88 »

DTho wrote:The question, as I see it, is not how many people did God "murder" (I assume, perhaps incorrectly, that the word murder better represents the intention behind the question than does the word kill), but, did God have the right to kill anyone at all, i.e., is God even capable of murder, i.e., do "our" lives belong to us . . . or to God?
....
What, if I may respectfully ask, was the purpose/point of the question (not that the questioner needs one)?
-DTho
Hi, DTho, and welcome to the forums. To obliquely answer your question, there is another thread, Does God Have the Right to Kill Humans, that you may be interested in.

I believe this "How Many..." thread was intended to ask the extent to which God used his own hand to stop certain people from living their lives. I think it is well within the scope of this thread to question the methods of life deprivation (in order to quibble with the number), but the reasons behind it are being discussed in the other thread.

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DTho
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Post #7

Post by DTho »

I see; okay.

--DTho

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