One verse condems the Watchtower.

[placebofactor]

In the Watchtower's first three publications, or copywrites of the Bible, 1961, 1971, and in 1984, they claimed that they "Rendered from the Original Languages. And this was done by the New World Bible Translation Committee".

No one knows who was in this committee, nor does anyone know the qualifications of any of these people, so we will call them the unknowns. And they expect people to follow these unknowns with blind trust.

Up until 1960, the Jehovah's Witnesses used the King James Bible, but their teachings hit too many brick walls. So, they rewrote the Bible to satisfy their false doctrines. Now, from their own Bible are the words that condemn them and their organization.

New World Translation 1981 edition, Revelation 22:18, "I am bearing witness to everyone that hears the words of the prophecy of this scroll: If anyone makes an addition to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this scroll;"

Strong words for false prophets.
In their 1984 edition, they wrote in Colossians 1:16, speaking of Jesus Christ, the Son of God: "because by means of him all (other) things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones, or lordships, or governments or authorities. All (other) things have been created through him and for him."

Twice, they added in brackets the word (other), implying that Jesus was created first, and then he created all other things. Here, they were honest by acknowledging they added the word (other) twice in brackets. In their latest edition of the N.W.T., published in 2013, the Watchtower went a step further and got in the face of their God. They set aside His warning about (intentionally) adding words. In the 2013 edition, they claim, this new Bible was "Rendered from the (same) original languages." But they intentionally lied and removed the brackets from (other) and made it a part of God's original words, deceiving their own, and attempting to deceive everyone they come in contact with.

As far as I am concerned, they intend to deceive, so they change God's words into a lie, then claim to be "Holier than thou" by putting themselves back under strict rules." Don't believe me, check it out for yourself.

[tygger2]

Yes, all Bible translators supply needed words in accordance with their own understanding of what meaning they believe the Bible writer actually intended. Any serious Bible student knows this elementary fact. You can see that the KJV translators (and NIV, NKJV, TEV/GNB, Beck, etc.) added the word “other” at Acts 5:29 (and rightly so) even though it is not actually written in the original text (also compare KJV at Job 24:24). Were they, then, dishonestly, blasphemously adding to God’s Word? Of course not!

The Bible writers often excluded the subject (and others with him) when using the term “all” (and “every”). This is a common usage even today. For example, the police lieutenant making an arrest of a criminal group might tell his men: “Arrest everyone in this room!” Obviously the lieutenant does not include himself (nor his men who are with him) even though he says “everyone”!

This also applies to the word “all” [πάντα, πάντὸς, πᾶς, etc.] as used in the early Greek manuscripts of the Bible.

And we find NEB; REB; NJB; NAB (‘91); GNB; and LB (for example) have honestly added “other” at Ezek. 31:5 to show that a certain tree towered above “all other trees” whereas KJV, NASB, RSV (for example) have it towering “above all trees.” Since it does not tower above itself, the Bible writer obviously excluded it from the phrase “all trees” (even though it is also a tree itself and a part of “all trees”) just as Col. 1:16 excludes Jesus from all other things.

In Matthew 10:22, Jesus tells his followers: “and you will be hated by all [παντων] because of my name.” - NRSV. Certainly, Jesus didn’t mean that his followers would be hated by Jesus himself or by God. And most certainly he didn’t mean they would be hated by themselves! (Remember, the subject – as in 1 Cor. 1:16 - is often understood to be excluded from the “all” statements.)

The Moffatt translation, An American Translation, The Common Bible, The Amplified Bible, and translations by C. B. Williams, and Beck all add “other” after “all” at 1 Cor. 15:24 (e.g. “when he will put an end to all other government, authority, and power” - C. B. Williams, The New Testament in the Language of the People, Moody Press, 1963). Although the NWT does not happen to add “other” at that scripture, its translators (as well as every other Jehovah’s Witness on earth) would whole-heartedly agree that those who have added “other” there have done so properly and that the original Bible writer so intended the meaning!

And conversely, at Jn 2:10 the NWT has added “other,” and, although most [other] translations do not add it, I’m sure most people would agree that, whether actually written in the scripture or not, context demands such an understanding: “Every other man puts out the fine wine first...”

Again, at 1 Cor. 6:18 the respected trinitarian Bibles NIV, NASB, NEB, REB, AT, GNB, TEV, JB, NJB (among others) have added “other” to the text. And the NWT agrees whole-heartedly! And at Matt. 6:33 JB, AT, GNB, TEV, and Beck (Lutheran scholar) have added “other” (NEB has added “the rest”), and, again, the NWT agrees.

Or how about Luke 13:2 where many trinitarian translations add ‘other’:
“all the other Galileans” - NIV
“all other Galileans” – NASB
“all other Galileans” – NAB (’91)
“all other Galileans” - NRSV
"all the other Galileans" - ESV
“all other Galileans” - NKJV
“all the other Galileans” – RSV
“anyone else in Galilee” – NEB and REB
“than any other Galileans” - JB
“than all other Galileans” - NJB
“any other Galileans” - AT
"above all the other Galileans" - KJ21
"than all the other Galileans?" - CEB
"everyone else in Galilee" - CEV
"than all the other Galileans" - MEV
"than all the other Galileans" - CSB
"all other Galileans" - TEV
"than the rest of the Galileans" - TLV
"than all the other Galileans" - Mounce
"than all the other Galileans" - WEB
"than all the other people in Galilee?" - WE
"than other people from Galilee?" - GW
"all other Galilaeans" - BBE
"other people from Galilee" - GodsWord
"all the other Galileans" - ISV NT
"than all others from Galilee?" - ICB
"than all the other Galileans" - ISV
“the rest of the Galileans” - Moffatt
"than all others from Galilee?" - NCV
"than all the other Galileans" - NET

[Replying to placebofactor in post #1]

[placebofactor]

Yes, all Bible translators supply needed words in accordance with their own understanding of what meaning they believe the Bible writer actually intended. Any serious Bible student knows this elementary fact. You can see that the KJV translators (and NIV, NKJV, TEV/GNB, Beck, etc.) added the word “other” at Acts 5:29 (and rightly so) even though it is not actually written in the original text (also compare KJV at Job 24:24). Were they, then, dishonestly, blasphemously adding to God’s Word? Of course not!

The Bible writers often excluded the subject (and others with him) when using the term “all” (and “every”). This is a common usage even today. For example, the police lieutenant making an arrest of a criminal group might tell his men: “Arrest everyone in this room!” Obviously the lieutenant does not include himself (nor his men who are with him) even though he says “everyone”!

This also applies to the word “all” [πάντα, πάντὸς, πᾶς, etc.] as used in the early Greek manuscripts of the Bible.

And we find NEB; REB; NJB; NAB (‘91); GNB; and LB (for example) have honestly added “other” at Ezek. 31:5 to show that a certain tree towered above “all other trees” whereas KJV, NASB, RSV (for example) have it towering “above all trees.” Since it does not tower above itself, the Bible writer obviously excluded it from the phrase “all trees” (even though it is also a tree itself and a part of “all trees”) just as Col. 1:16 excludes Jesus from all other things.

In Matthew 10:22, Jesus tells his followers: “and you will be hated by all [παντων] because of my name.” - NRSV. Certainly, Jesus didn’t mean that his followers would be hated by Jesus himself or by God. And most certainly he didn’t mean they would be hated by themselves! (Remember, the subject – as in 1 Cor. 1:16 - is often understood to be excluded from the “all” statements.)

The Moffatt translation, An American Translation, The Common Bible, The Amplified Bible, and translations by C. B. Williams, and Beck all add “other” after “all” at 1 Cor. 15:24 (e.g. “when he will put an end to all other government, authority, and power” - C. B. Williams, The New Testament in the Language of the People, Moody Press, 1963). Although the NWT does not happen to add “other” at that scripture, its translators (as well as every other Jehovah’s Witness on earth) would whole-heartedly agree that those who have added “other” there have done so properly and that the original Bible writer so intended the meaning!

And conversely, at Jn 2:10 the NWT has added “other,” and, although most [other] translations do not add it, I’m sure most people would agree that, whether actually written in the scripture or not, context demands such an understanding: “Every other man puts out the fine wine first...”

Again, at 1 Cor. 6:18 the respected trinitarian Bibles NIV, NASB, NEB, REB, AT, GNB, TEV, JB, NJB (among others) have added “other” to the text. And the NWT agrees whole-heartedly! And at Matt. 6:33 JB, AT, GNB, TEV, and Beck (Lutheran scholar) have added “other” (NEB has added “the rest”), and, again, the NWT agrees.

Or how about Luke 13:2 where many trinitarian translations add ‘other’:
“all the other Galileans” - NIV
“all other Galileans” – NASB
“all other Galileans” – NAB (’91)
“all other Galileans” - NRSV
"all the other Galileans" - ESV
“all other Galileans” - NKJV
“all the other Galileans” – RSV
“anyone else in Galilee” – NEB and REB
“than any other Galileans” - JB
“than all other Galileans” - NJB
“any other Galileans” - AT
"above all the other Galileans" - KJ21
"than all the other Galileans?" - CEB
"everyone else in Galilee" - CEV
"than all the other Galileans" - MEV
"than all the other Galileans" - CSB
"all other Galileans" - TEV
"than the rest of the Galileans" - TLV
"than all the other Galileans" - Mounce
"than all the other Galileans" - WEB
"than all the other people in Galilee?" - WE
"than other people from Galilee?" - GW
"all other Galilaeans" - BBE
"other people from Galilee" - GodsWord
"all the other Galileans" - ISV NT
"than all others from Galilee?" - ICB
"than all the other Galileans" - ISV
“the rest of the Galileans” - Moffatt
"than all others from Galilee?" - NCV
"than all the other Galileans" - NET

[Replying to placebofactor in post #1]

There you go again, the subject concerns one verse in Colossians 1:16. Why do you continually go on these rabbit trails, changing the subject to other matters?

You wrote, "Yes, all Bible translators supply needed words in accordance with their own understanding of what meaning they believe the Bible writer actually intended. Any serious Bible student knows this elementary fact.

The problem in Colossians 1:16 is not an honest error, but an intentional rewrite to prove one of the Watchtower's blatant attempts to portray Jesus Christ, the Son of God, as a created being. Your 1984 edition of the N.W.T. has corrupted every verse concerning the eternal existence of the Son of God. Start with John 1:1, N.W.T. "The word was a god." This 1984 edition lists all the manuscripts used in that translation, including the Westcott and Hort and received text of the K.J.B. I know of no other Bible listed in the top 25 Bibles sold in the World that uses these manuscripts the Watchtowers lists that agrees with the N.W.T. of John 1:1. Conclusion, thousands of translators are wrong, but your unknown translators are correct. And please, don't come up with some bull about an obscure Bible or translators that agree with the Watchtower. We have a list of these fly-by-nights, and none of their work is ever accepted by the Christian community.

Here's another verse the Watchtower has destroyed in their attempt to prove Jesus Christ was created.

N.W.T. Revelation 1:1, "A REVELATION BY JESUS CHRIST WHICH GOD GAVE HIM. This rewrite cannot be found in any of the other best sellers. what the Watchtower has done is claim it's a revelation of the Father and not the Son who is called the Almighty in Revelation 1:8. Now compare the Watchtower's corruption with these other best sellers. By changing "The Revelation" to "A revelation," now the Watchtower can claim what they call "new light." This will be the last Revelation given to us, no others are coming. To claim new revelations is blasphemous.

N.W.T. Revelation 1:1, "A revelation BY JESUS CHRIST WHICH GOD GAVE HIM.

K. J.B. Revelation 1:1, "THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST, WHICH GOD GAVE UNTO HIM,"

N.I.V. Revelation 1:1, "THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST WHICH GOD GAVE HIM."

Reformation Bible, "The Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave him."

Douay Same as K.J.B.

Wycliff Bible, Cottage Bible, Matthew Henry, Adam Clark etc. etc. etc. All the same as K.J.B. Only the Watchtower's unknown translators have intentionally changed God's word to deceive their own people and the rest of the Christian community. The Watchtower even changed the words of the Father concerning his only Begotten Son in,

Hebrews 1:8, N.W.T. "BUT WITH REFERENCE TO THE SON: GOD IS YOUR THRONE FOREVER" God is your throne, what the heck does that mean? Sheer nonsense!

Hebrews 1:8, K.J.B., and all the other Bibles, "But unto the Sone he said, "Your throne, O God, if for ever and ever:" The Father calls his Son God, that's good enough for me and the rest of the Christian community.

Every change the Watchtower made was intentional. Their goal is to fulfill their own will, not the will of God.

[tygger2]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #3]

Rev. 1:1
NIV
The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,
NIVUK
The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,
NLV
The things that are written in the Book are made known by Jesus Christ. God gave these things to Christ so He could show them to the servants He owns. These are things which must happen very soon. Christ sent His angel to John who is a servant owned by Him. Christ made these things known to John.
NLT
This is a revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants the events that must soon take place. He sent an angel to present this revelation to his servant John.

Jesus Christ in this verse is in the genitive case which means that it is understood to mean 'of Jesus Christ' or several other similar meanings in English. Rev. 3:14, for example, is translated as "... the creation of God because "God" is in the genitive case in the Greek. But it would be better to translate it into English as "the creation by God."

Heb. 1:8

Oxford professor and famous trinitarian Bible translator, Dr. James Moffatt, has been described as “probably the greatest biblical scholar of our day.” His respected Bible translation renders Heb. 1:8 as:
“God is thy throne for ever and ever.”

University of Cambridge professor and noted New Testament language scholar, Dr. C. F. D. Moule writes that Heb. 1:8 may be “construed so as to mean Thy throne is God” - p. 32, An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, Cambridge University Press, 1990 printing.

An American Translation (Smith-Goodspeed), renders it: “God is your throne....”

And The Bible in Living English (Byington) reads: “God is your throne....”

The Message reads: “Your throne is God’s throne….”

NSB - God is your throne

Mace - "God is thy throne….”

Twentieth Century Translation - ‘God is thy throne….’

Another world-acclaimed scholar of trinitarian Christendom has translated this verse similarly - trinitarian Dr. William Barclay.

Noted trinitarian (Southern Baptist) New Testament Greek scholar Dr. A. T. Robertson acknowledges that either “Thy throne, O God” or “God is thy throne”/“thy throne is God” may be proper renderings: “Either makes good sense.” - p. 339, Word Pictures in the New Testament.

The American Standard Version (ASV), the Revised Standard Version (RSV), the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), and The New English Bible (NEB) have provided alternate readings to the traditional trinitarian rendering of the KJV at Hebrews 1:8. These alternate readings (found in footnotes) agree with Dr. Moffatt’s, Dr. Barclay’s, Smith-Goodspeed’s, Byington’s, and the New World Translation’s renderings of this scripture (“God is your throne”).


Even Young’s Concise Bible Commentary (written by the famous trinitarian author of Young’s Analytical Concordance to the Bible) admits: “[Heb. 1:8] may be justly rendered ‘God is thy throne ...’ in either case it is applicable to the mediatorial throne only.”

[placebofactor]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #3]

Rev. 1:1
NIV
The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,
NIVUK
The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,
NLV
The things that are written in the Book are made known by Jesus Christ. God gave these things to Christ so He could show them to the servants He owns. These are things which must happen very soon. Christ sent His angel to John who is a servant owned by Him. Christ made these things known to John.
NLT
This is a revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants the events that must soon take place. He sent an angel to present this revelation to his servant John.

Jesus Christ in this verse is in the genitive case which means that it is understood to mean 'of Jesus Christ' or several other similar meanings in English. Rev. 3:14, for example, is translated as "... the creation of God because "God" is in the genitive case in the Greek. But it would be better to translate it into English as "the creation by God."

Heb. 1:8

Oxford professor and famous trinitarian Bible translator, Dr. James Moffatt, has been described as “probably the greatest biblical scholar of our day.” His respected Bible translation renders Heb. 1:8 as:
“God is thy throne for ever and ever.”

University of Cambridge professor and noted New Testament language scholar, Dr. C. F. D. Moule writes that Heb. 1:8 may be “construed so as to mean Thy throne is God” - p. 32, An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, Cambridge University Press, 1990 printing.

An American Translation (Smith-Goodspeed), renders it: “God is your throne....”

And The Bible in Living English (Byington) reads: “God is your throne....”

The Message reads: “Your throne is God’s throne….”

NSB - God is your throne

Mace - "God is thy throne….”

Twentieth Century Translation - ‘God is thy throne….’

Another world-acclaimed scholar of trinitarian Christendom has translated this verse similarly - trinitarian Dr. William Barclay.

Noted trinitarian (Southern Baptist) New Testament Greek scholar Dr. A. T. Robertson acknowledges that either “Thy throne, O God” or “God is thy throne”/“thy throne is God” may be proper renderings: “Either makes good sense.” - p. 339, Word Pictures in the New Testament.

The American Standard Version (ASV), the Revised Standard Version (RSV), the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), and The New English Bible (NEB) have provided alternate readings to the traditional trinitarian rendering of the KJV at Hebrews 1:8. These alternate readings (found in footnotes) agree with Dr. Moffatt’s, Dr. Barclay’s, Smith-Goodspeed’s, Byington’s, and the New World Translation’s renderings of this scripture (“God is your throne”).


Even Young’s Concise Bible Commentary (written by the famous trinitarian author of Young’s Analytical Concordance to the Bible) admits: “[Heb. 1:8] may be justly rendered ‘God is thy throne ...’ in either case it is applicable to the mediatorial throne only.”

I will answer just one of your comments, your first one. You wrote, "NIV. The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Bull!!!!!!!!! You'd better check your sources.
N.I.V. Zondervan Publishing House. Copyrighted in 1985. All rights reserved: Library of Congress catalog card number 85-50591
Revelation 1:1, "THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST, WHICH GOD GAVE HIM TO SHOW HIS SERVANTS," All the rest of your so-called Bible verses are from the corrupt Westcott and Hort text that had over 10,000 changes made when the two clowns got their hands on them, and then they added another 5000 changes to it. WALLA---- ALL BIBLES USING THEIR WORK HAVE BEEN INTENTIONALLY CORRUPTED.

The word "Intentionally" is the key. Revelation 22:18, "If any man shall add unto these things, God (your Jehovah) shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." So keep using the N.W.T., then you can explain to the LORD why he was wrong.

[tygger2]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #5]
Bull!!!!!!!!! You'd better check your sources.
N.I.V. Zondervan Publishing House. Copyrighted in 1985. All rights reserved: Library of Congress catalog card number 85-50591
Revelation 1:1, "THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST, WHICH GOD GAVE HIM TO SHOW HIS SERVANTS," All the rest of your so-called Bible verses are from the corrupt Westcott and Hort text that had over 10,000 changes made when the two clowns got their hands on them, and then they added another 5000 changes to it. WALLA---- ALL BIBLES USING THEIR WORK HAVE BEEN INTENTIONALLY CORRUPTED.
.............................................................................................................

Revelation 1:1-2
New International Version
Prologue

1 The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, 2 who testifies to everything he saw—that is, the word of God and the testimony of Jesus Christ.
Read full chapter
New International Version (NIV)

Holy Bible, New International Version®, NIV® Copyright ©1973, 1978, 1984, 2011 by Biblica, Inc.® Used by permission. All rights reserved worldwide.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?s ... rsion=NIV

[servant1]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #1]

Sad the darkness owns you.
He( YHVH(Jehovah) created, not we created-Gen 1:27--Prov 8:27-28--- The darkness twists Gen 1:26 into we created--teaching the exact opposite of Gods truth. So why are you misleading all to lose in your darkness?

[placebofactor]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #1]

Sad the darkness owns you.
He( YHVH(Jehovah) created, not we created-Gen 1:27--Prov 8:27-28--- The darkness twists Gen 1:26 into we created--teaching the exact opposite of Gods truth. So why are you misleading all to lose in your darkness?

"Sorry, Charley! It's Elohim in Genesis 1:1, not YHVH (Jehovah). The difference between a true believer and a cult member is that Christianity does not have to publish a new Bible every 15 years to accommodate its teachings. Not only that, but in the past 60 years, the Watchtower had corrected its nonsense 4 times with four different copywrites. So don't accuse others of being in darkness, when it's the Watchtower that's had a blackout.

I am still waiting for one of you to answer the following. If Jehovah (the Father) as you claim, divorced his wife Israel, then sent his Son back to the earth to purchase her back, and now the Son, who is the bridegroom, is going to marry his Father's divorced wife? The only other option, Jesus is Jehovah of the Old Testament, who divorced his wife, Israel, and was sent back by the Father to purchase her back as the Son's future bride.

What say you?

[Capbook]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #1]

Sad the darkness owns you.
He( YHVH(Jehovah) created, not we created-Gen 1:27--Prov 8:27-28--- The darkness twists Gen 1:26 into we created--teaching the exact opposite of Gods truth. So why are you misleading all to lose in your darkness?

Again, try to use word for word Bible translations to avoid corrections from others in this forums. It's Elohim not the Teragrammaton.

Gen 1:27 And Elohim created the man in His image, in the image of Elohim He created him – male and female He created them

[JehovahsWitness]

duplicate sorry