Quantrill wrote: ↑
Mon Jun 29, 2020 4:57 am
State or local intervenes when it wants to. Why does state or local allow counter protestors at the same time of a protest when they know it will result in violence?
Corona is now a political tool to be used to circumvent the Constitutional rights of Americans.
Your query is framed in the form of a leading question. Foreknowledge of violence is an unsubstantiated presumption on your part. If you wish to have this query answered you must first:
1) give an instance where such a thing occurred
2) present evidence that police and the state/municipality had such foreknowledge
3) present evidence that the protesters had such foreknowledge
4) present evidence that the counter protesters also had such foreknowledge
The right to dissent is constitutionally guaranteed. Our Founders made sure to do so as we have discussed on this forum and which is something most people are taught from grade school onwards. However, no such right exists which allows people to unecessarily disrupt the peace and social order. But if prosecutors are to successfully convict anyone for daring to violate that principle, the burden of proof is upon them to demonstrate that people have done so knowingly and purposefully.
re ''Corona is now a political tool to be used to circumvent the Constitutional rights of Americans. ''
'Tool' used by whom? How? Where? Which Constitutional rights have been circumvented? Which courts (most of whom are controlled by Republican appointed judges) have allowed any of this? Kindly provide links to legal studies or analyses by right wing sources such as Fox or Breitbart which support your contention.