Chancellor wrote:
You may think the reasons are obvious but are they? There was a time when the same argument would have been made about homosexuals.
What argument? That they are able to be taken advantage of, or not able to consent? That seems odd, and I've never heard that one before.
In any case, why should I be concerned about the antiquated arguments when I use the resources and circumstances of the present?
The argument just doesn't wash; particularly in a society where morality is whatever the individual decides it is and where there's a segment of society trying to change the very definitions of marriage and family.
You mean the current definition of marriage in your particular country. Why should it remain the same? Marriage has already been radically redefined lately so that women now have equal rights and people of two different races can be wed. Why dread multiculturalism? As I previously stated before, the definition of marriage and family varies from culture to culture, as does morality. This is nothing short of xenophobia.
Yes, morality is whatever the individual decides it is - within the limits of the law, which strives to protect its citizens.
Further, the "right or authority to consent" is something that is conferred upon them by society and you are making a presumption in even suggesting that consent is a requirement. You appear to be one of those who believes in moral relativity and, yet, you contradict such relativity by suggesting there is this absolute standard called "consent."
Morality is subjective, but that does not mean standards cannot be implemented for protection. It is the government's duty to institute these standards to prevent one citizen from harming (emotionally, psychologicall and physically) another citizen. Since no one is harmed from a homosexual relationship, there should be no exceptions to having one. Since the existence of marriage is a threat to social equality, it should not exist either.
The adoption of a standard does not claim some form of absolute truth, as the adoption of your particular style of marriage as an absolute does.
As for children; I am sure you know most people below a certain age lack the critical judgement to determine right from wrong in certain situations, and can be manipulated by other people. These powers of judgement are usually granted through experience, which is why some sort of age is usually the defining means of a standard. I would much prefer that the title of adult be bestowed through some sort of psychological test, but all sorts of problems arise from this, including the creation of class distinctions and the problems of administering and developing such a system. Here is where the practicality of having a standard comes into it.
As you have stated, there is no authority on what constitutes a child. Do you yourself really believe that the date decided by law is exactly the moment when a child can be trusted with important decisions - not a minute more, not a minute less? Do you believe these same about the age Americans are allowed to drink alcohol? Vote? Did the bible state the answers to these questions too? Doubtful. Even the various states of America differ in deciding when exactly is the age of consent (ranging from a surprising 14 with parental consent in North Carolina, to a startling 18 in Arizona) which goes to show there is no real absolute except where we decide to have one out of the interests of practicality. In the 1860s the age of consent was 12 years old. It was raised after concern children were being sold into brothels. Although children would have been more mature earlier, common sense dictates the age of consent was too low - and that most of these children probably had not even hit puberty (an important deciding factor in maturity).