Subjective Morality

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Subjective Morality

Post #1

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I started this post out of another discussion with Divine Insight. DI has made some arguments for morality being subjective. I'm still trying to get the terminology straight.
Divine Insight wrote:If morality is not absolute, then it can only be subjective. A matter of opinion.
We need to get our terms straight when talking about our human morality. I agree with you concerning 'subjective' being a matter of opinion. Objective, then, would mean not being a matter of opinion. Just like the shape of the earth is not a matter of opinion. X is good or bad for everyone.

Absolute vs. situational is a sub-issue concerning objectivism. The absolutist would say X is good or bad for everyone (and thus objectivism) no matter the situation. The situationalist would say X is good or bad for everyone but qualified by the situation.

In this phrasing, morality can be objectivist without being absolute. Now, I don't care if these are the terms we agree upon or not, but there must be some term for each concept I've presented. If you want to use "absolute" for "objective" above, that's fine. But you've got to tell me what two terms you want to use for what I termed the "absolute vs. situational" sub-issue.

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #551

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Bust Nak wrote: Tue Sep 22, 2020 7:17 pmWhat choice, you haven't done anything yet. You haven't made a choice until you choose to eat an ice-cream.
Okay, you just want to talk about people thinking about eating ice cream or thinking about abusing a child. That's still thinking about what choice should be made. (2) is still applying an experience of taste (1) to what future choice you should make (2) and not the experience of taste itself. And (3) is neither, for it is about what future choice someone else should make.
Bust Nak wrote: Tue Sep 22, 2020 7:17 pmSure, but don't see how that changes anything I said. The fact that should is not about something being objectively wrong or right means there is no correct answer to the question "should Johnny eat pistachio ice-cream." Objectively right means the same thing as correct.
Okay, then it's just a semantic difference. What word should I use for my concept instead of "correct"?
Bust Nak wrote: Tue Sep 22, 2020 7:17 pmI am already ruling that out as being illogical. Shape being a subjective feature of the Earth does not imply anything on the content anyone's belief. Instead it implies stuff like correctness does not apply to a person's belief.
But it can be the reason someone believes as they do. It is logical to say that since everyone has different tastes, I'm not going to judge their eating actions by my food taste, but by their own. They would be foolish to eat chocolate ice cream over pistachio because I like chocolate.
Bust Nak wrote: Tue Sep 22, 2020 7:17 pmSure. Don't see what the problem is, it is objectively true that ice-cream taste is subjective; it is a fact that does not depend on anyone's subjective experience/feelings; correctness applies here and it is correct to say so. Have I ever given off the impression that this isn't the case?
Yes, but that's a different objectivism than the objectivism/non-objectivism I've been talking about.
Bust Nak wrote: Tue Sep 22, 2020 7:17 pmThese are all alternative examples of (1), as opposed to a different kind of statements to (1). They are all various judgment.
No, (1) is a personal experience stripped of judgment. A person could have a (1) of objectifying women being good and a further judgment that objectifying women is wrong.
Bust Nak wrote: Tue Sep 22, 2020 7:17 pm
What do you mean by "ban" Johnny? Are you talking about you performing an action in response to Johnny's action?
Physically stopping him, making it illegal, telling him not to, anything along those lines, i.e. the equivalent of eat chocolate ice cream.
Because I'm talking about judging Johnny's action itself...
No you were talking about actions re: eating ice-cream.
There are at least four things we've talked about:

1. Judging ice cream taste.
2. Judging one's own actions in eating ice cream.
3. Judging another's actions in eating ice cream. [the quote of mine you focused in on that I was responding to above]
4. Judging one's own actions in response to Johnny eating the ice cream he does. Should I try to stop Johnny or do nothing?

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #552

Post by Bust Nak »

The Tanager wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 8:17 am Okay, you just want to talk about people thinking about eating ice cream or thinking about abusing a child. That's still thinking about what choice should be made. (2) is still applying an experience of taste (1) to what future choice you should make (2) and not the experience of taste itself. And (3) is neither, for it is about what future choice someone else should make.
Not sure what you are getting at here. Just to double check, which (3) are you talking about here? This "Applying that hallucination to others: I think Johnny should eat chocolate ice cream because I think chocolate ice cream tastes good?" I've already discarded this as illogical.

Do you accept that there is no difference between "I like ice-cream" and "I should eat ice-cream" are the same thing, given the premise that we are focusing solely on taste? Do you accept that there is a difference between I should eat ice-cream and I choose to eat ice-cream?

If not, why not? These are the two points I was trying to raise in that part of our conversation.
Okay, then it's just a semantic difference. What word should I use for my concept instead of "correct"?
If you meant the right answer for one particular individual answerer, then use "preferred." It is an answer selected by an individual according to his subjective experience, as opposed to according to the reality outside of one's self.

With this in mind, do you accept my claim that there is no correct answer to the question "should Johnny abuse children?"
But it can be the reason someone believes as they do. It is logical to say that since everyone has different tastes, I'm not going to judge their eating actions by my food taste, but by their own. They would be foolish to eat chocolate ice cream over pistachio because I like chocolate.
That too was included in my claim, I have already ruled this out as illogical.
Yes, but that's a different objectivism than the objectivism/non-objectivism I've been talking about.
How is it different? It's the same thing to me.
No, (1) is a personal experience stripped of judgment. A person could have a (1) of objectifying women being good and a further judgment that objectifying women is wrong.
Sounds like two lots of (1) to me. "Chocolate ice cream tastes good" is not stripped of judgment, it is synonymous with "chocolate ice cream is judged to be good tasting."
There are at least four things we've talked about...

1. Judging ice cream taste.
2. Judging one's own actions in eating ice cream.
3. Judging another's actions in eating ice cream. [the quote of mine you focused in on that I was responding to above]
4. Judging one's own actions in response to Johnny eating the ice cream he does. Should I try to stop Johnny or do nothing?
No, I was referring (2), I spoke of physically stopping Johnny, making it illegal and so on. These are my own actions, the equivalent of eating ice cream.

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #553

Post by The Tanager »

Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 amNot sure what you are getting at here. Just to double check, which (3) are you talking about here? This "Applying that hallucination to others: I think Johnny should eat chocolate ice cream because I think chocolate ice cream tastes good?" I've already discarded this as illogical.
But I don't see how it is illogical.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 amDo you accept that there is no difference between "I like ice-cream" and "I should eat ice-cream" are the same thing, given the premise that we are focusing solely on taste?
I still think they are different. One talks about my general taste and one talks about my taste affecting a choice I have to make.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 amDo you accept that there is a difference between I should eat ice-cream and I choose to eat ice-cream?

If not, why not? These are the two points I was trying to raise in that part of our conversation.
Do you mean given the premise that we are focusing solely on taste deciding our choice? If so, then these seem identical because choosing to eat is the only thing one can do. It's illogical to say one should do something they are incapable of doing.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 am
Okay, then it's just a semantic difference. What word should I use for my concept instead of "correct"?
If you meant the right answer for one particular individual answerer, then use "preferred."
But I've already noted what they prefer. I'm trying to say something different. I'm talking about my thoughts toward them acting on their preference.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 am
Yes, but that's a different objectivism than the objectivism/non-objectivism I've been talking about.
How is it different? It's the same thing to me.
(A) was believing X because they see that as an objective feature of reality
(B) was believing X because they see that as a subjective feature of reality
(C) was believing X because of one's personal subjective experience of reality

I've said (A) is objectivism and (B) is non-objectivism. You are now saying both of those are "objectivism." That you have the subjective experience of reality you have is just as much objectively true as taste being a subjective feature of reality. So, all three are "objective" in the sense you seem to be saying. (A) and (B) are directly objectivism and non-objectivism in the way I've been talking about it. (C) ignores that issue and talks about simple subjectivism, just sharing what people's experiences are.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 am
No, (1) is a personal experience stripped of judgment. A person could have a (1) of objectifying women being good and a further judgment that objectifying women is wrong.
Sounds like two lots of (1) to me. "Chocolate ice cream tastes good" is not stripped of judgment, it is synonymous with "chocolate ice cream is judged to be good tasting."
"I like objectifying women" might be the same as "objectifying women is judged to be pleasurable to me," but it's not the same as "objectifying women is judged to be a good/moral thing."

I think it confusing to use "judged" in the second phrase. I don't have an immediate choice in the matter, judge between the options, and then choose to find pleasure in objectifying a women, where I could just as easily choose not to find pleasure in it. That's why I said (1) is a personal experience stripped of judgment. I don't judge chocolate ice cream to taste good. It simply tastes good to me. I judge whether I (or others) should eat it or not.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 10:39 am
1. Judging ice cream taste.
2. Judging one's own actions in eating ice cream.
3. Judging another's actions in eating ice cream. [the quote of mine you focused in on that I was responding to above]
4. Judging one's own actions in response to Johnny eating the ice cream he does. Should I try to stop Johnny or do nothing?
No, I was referring (2), I spoke of physically stopping Johnny, making it illegal and so on. These are my own actions, the equivalent of eating ice cream.
Why is that not referring to (4)? (2) is about you eating ice cream, not Johnny choosing to do so, and what you want to do in response to that. Either way, I'm talking about (3). The objectivism/non-objectivism issue is making a judgment on Johnny's action, not either of your actions in (2) and (4).

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #554

Post by Bust Nak »

The Tanager wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 12:10 pm But I don't see how it is illogical.
It's illogical because at worse it is a non-sequitur fallacy: "taste is subjective" does not have any implication on the content of anyone's subjective experience. At best it's a question begging fallacy: you can't tell my why "taste is subjective" has any implication on the content of anyone's subjective experience, yet you think it's inexplicably true.
I still think they are different. One talks about my general taste and one talks about my taste affecting a choice I have to make.
But in the context of only focusing on taste, your general taste always affect the choice you make. Discarding all other reasons, you are left with taste as the only reason. It's not reasonable to not act on it.
Do you mean given the premise that we are focusing solely on taste deciding our choice? If so, then these seem identical because choosing to eat is the only thing one can do. It's illogical to say one should do something they are incapable of doing.
"I should eat ice-cream" is a thought, "I am choosing to eat ice-cream" is an action.

Just to recap, focusing only on taste, the disagreement is:

I say, I like ice-cream (AKA should eat ice-cream) -> choosing to eat ice-cream.
You say, I like ice-cream -> choosing to eat ice-cream (AKA should eat ice-cream.)

Is this accurate? If so then it's yet another semantic difference.
But I've already noted what they prefer. I'm trying to say something different. I'm talking about my thoughts toward them acting on their preference.
Well I was talking about the answers to subjective questions such as "should Johnny abuse children?" What is the "correct" answer here, in the sense you were referring to, the sense that is neither objectively true, nor same thing as preference?
(A) was believing X because they see that as an objective feature of reality
(B) was believing X because they see that as a subjective feature of reality
(C) was believing X because of one's personal subjective experience of reality

I've said (A) is objectivism and (B) is non-objectivism. You are now saying both of those are "objectivism..."
Okay, I get what you are saying now. Lets rewind...

No, I am not saying both (A) and (B) are objectivism. Instead I was trying to say, (A) believing X because they see that as an objective feature of reality, where X is "taste is subjective."
That you have the subjective experience of reality you have is just as much objectively true as taste being a subjective feature of reality.
Yes, that sounds about right, but that doesn't seem to imply either (B) or (C) is objectivism? I am still agreeing that (A) and (B) are directly objectivism and non-objectivism and (C) ignores that issue and talks about simple subjectivism, just sharing what people's experiences are.
"I like objectifying women" might be the same as "objectifying women is judged to be pleasurable to me," but it's not the same as "objectifying women is judged to be a good/moral thing."
That makes perfect sense to me, these are two different kind of tastes, but they are still both (1) personal hallucination, to me. Neither has objective truth on the matter, both are just a subjective experience you have of reality.
I think it confusing to use "judged" in the second phrase. I don't have an immediate choice in the matter, judge between the options, and then choose to find pleasure in objectifying a women, where I could just as easily choose not to find pleasure in it. That's why I said (1) is a personal experience stripped of judgment. I don't judge chocolate ice cream to taste good. It simply tastes good to me. I judge whether I (or others) should eat it or not.
I don't see how that would render the second claim any less a (1). Immediacy is irrelevant, I gave an example earlier on with environmental policy, where it's not immediately clear how I feel about it, I analyse it, look at its implications, costs and benefits, to me personally, to my society and the Earth overall, then decide if it's good idea or not. But all of that's still hinges on the immediate, choice-less feeling of "more material comforts? That's great; no more polar bears? That's Bad."
Why is that not referring to (4)? (2) is about you eating ice cream, not Johnny choosing to do so, and what you want to do in response to that.
(4) isn't about ice-cream being pleasurable to me, so it doesn't match the kind of taste set out in (1).
Either way, I'm talking about (3). The objectivism/non-objectivism issue is making a judgment on Johnny's action, not either of your actions in (2) and (4).
Judging Johnny is not me applying my hallucination, but having the hallucination.

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #555

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Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pmIt's illogical because at worse it is a non-sequitur fallacy: "taste is subjective" does not have any implication on the content of anyone's subjective experience. At best it's a question begging fallacy: you can't tell my why "taste is subjective" has any implication on the content of anyone's subjective experience, yet you think it's inexplicably true.
Me: I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because I think taste is a subjective feature of reality. If taste were objective, then I wouldn't like them having that freedom. Take that away and I no longer have a good reason to be against them using that freedom. [I'm simplifying for the purposes of our discussion. I do distinguish between thinking someone is doing something harmful to themselves (disliking their use of freedom) and still cherishing their freedom to do so (liking the existence of personal freedom).]

You: I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because...
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pm"I should eat ice-cream" is a thought, "I am choosing to eat ice-cream" is an action.

Just to recap, focusing only on taste, the disagreement is:

I say, I like ice-cream (AKA should eat ice-cream) -> choosing to eat ice-cream.
You say, I like ice-cream -> choosing to eat ice-cream (AKA should eat ice-cream.)

Is this accurate? If so then it's yet another semantic difference.
I say chocolate ice cream tastes good to me --> In this moment I should act upon what tastes good to me --> choosing to eat chocolate ice cream.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pmWell I was talking about the answers to subjective questions such as "should Johnny abuse children?" What is the "correct" answer here, in the sense you were referring to, the sense that is neither objectively true, nor same thing as preference?
Since I'm not a non-objectivist there, let me use the ice cream example first. What is my preference on whether Johnny should eat pistachio ice cream?

Preference: Johnny prefers pistachio ice cream. I prefer chocolate ice cream.
Objective truth: There is no objectively good ice cream preference.
Objectivism/Non-objectivism: I think Johnny should eat what Johnny prefers about ice cream, not what I prefer about ice cream.

So, if I was a non-objectivist about child abuse:

Preference: I prefer no child abuse. Johnny prefers child abuse.
Objective truth: There is no objectively good action involving abusing or not abusing children.
Objectivism/non-objectivism: I think Johnny should act towards children in a way that matches his preference, not mine.

You seem to agree with the ice cream (obj/non-obj) response (although will word it differently), but not the child abuse (obj/non-obj) response. Instead, there, you would say something like:

Objectivism/non-objectivism: I think Johnny should act in line with my preference on child abuse, not what he prefers.

Now, to wording the ice cream response differently. You probably think it is something like this:

Preference: I prefer for Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes. Susan prefers Johnny to eat the ice cream she likes.
Objective truth: There is no objective truth on what one should prefer here.
Objectivism/non-objectivism: ???
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pmOkay, I get what you are saying now. Lets rewind...

No, I am not saying both (A) and (B) are objectivism. Instead I was trying to say, (A) believing X because they see that as an objective feature of reality, where X is "taste is subjective."
With "x is y" I meant specific claims like: pistachio ice cream does not taste good. In (A), the objectivist thinks pistachio ice cream objectively tastes bad for all. In (B), the person thinks there is no objective goodness. In (C), the objective/non-objective issue is ignored and the person simply says pistachio ice cream tastes bad to them.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pm
"I like objectifying women" might be the same as "objectifying women is judged to be pleasurable to me," but it's not the same as "objectifying women is judged to be a good/moral thing."
That makes perfect sense to me, these are two different kind of tastes, but they are still both (1) personal hallucination, to me. Neither has objective truth on the matter, both are just a subjective experience you have of reality.
While I disagree, that's not the point of our conversation. I'm talking about when you judge another person's actions (not what you will do because that action), what that is based on. Is it based on there being an objective fact of reality, is it based on there being a subjective fact of reality, or is it solely based on an unexplicable feeling you get when thinking about that kind of action (or something else)?
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pm
I think it confusing to use "judged" in the second phrase. I don't have an immediate choice in the matter, judge between the options, and then choose to find pleasure in objectifying a women, where I could just as easily choose not to find pleasure in it. That's why I said (1) is a personal experience stripped of judgment. I don't judge chocolate ice cream to taste good. It simply tastes good to me. I judge whether I (or others) should eat it or not.
I don't see how that would render the second claim any less a (1). Immediacy is irrelevant, I gave an example earlier on with environmental policy, where it's not immediately clear how I feel about it, I analyse it, look at its implications, costs and benefits, to me personally, to my society and the Earth overall, then decide if it's good idea or not. But all of that's still hinges on the immediate, choice-less feeling of "more material comforts? That's great; no more polar bears? That's Bad."
Okay, so we have:

1) Personal hallucination: I dislike this environmental policy.

2) Applying that hallucination to one's self or Judging oneself on one's own personal subjective experience: I should not vote for it. I should try to get another policy through, etc.

3) Applying that hallucination to others or Judging others on one's own personal subjective experience: I think Johnny should not vote for it because I have a feeling of dislike towards it.

4) Judging others on an objective feature of reality: That environmental policy is objectively wrong. Johnny should not vote for it.

5) Judging others on a subjective feature of reality: That environmental policy is not objectively right or wrong; environmental policies are subjective kinds of things. Johnny likes the policy (for whatever reason). Johnny should vote for it because that is his subjective experience.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pm
1. Judging ice cream taste.
2. Judging one's own actions in eating ice cream.
3. Judging another's actions in eating ice cream. [the quote of mine you focused in on that I was responding to above]
4. Judging one's own actions in response to Johnny eating the ice cream he does. Should I try to stop Johnny or do nothing?
(4) isn't about ice-cream being pleasurable to me, so it doesn't match the kind of taste set out in (1).
Perhaps you were thinking this (1) and (2) matched other lists that had a (1) and (2). We've had different ones, that I've meant to remain separate, that numbers between lists don't mean anything. I probably should have started using different symbols for each. In this list, these are four distinct things.
Bust Nak wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 1:34 pmJudging Johnny is not me applying my hallucination, but having the hallucination.
No. You having a hallucination is simply having a subjective experience of something, considered as though no one else existed. Do you like the taste of this ice cream? In judging Johnny we introduce the existence of others that are doing different actions than you are and how you judge them performing their actions.

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #556

Post by Bust Nak »

The Tanager wrote: Wed Sep 23, 2020 3:41 pm Me: I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because I think taste is a subjective feature of reality. If taste were objective, then I wouldn't like them having that freedom. Take that away and I no longer have a good reason to be against them using that freedom.
That's the non-sequitur I was referring to: that you have no good reason to be against freedom, is not a reason to allow freedom.
You: I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because...
That's the way I roll. I was built that way.
I say chocolate ice cream tastes good to me --> In this moment I should act upon what tastes good to me --> choosing to eat chocolate ice cream.
So "should eat" and "choosing to eat" is not the same but one trivially implies the other?
Since I'm not a non-objectivist there, let me use the ice cream example first. What is my preference on whether Johnny should eat pistachio ice cream?

Preference: Johnny prefers pistachio ice cream. I prefer chocolate ice cream.
Objective truth: There is no objectively good ice cream preference.
Objectivism/Non-objectivism: I think Johnny should eat what Johnny prefers about ice cream, not what I prefer about ice cream.
That last claim looks like a preference to me, it ignores the Objectivism/Non-objectivism issue. It's the second claim that deals with Objectivism/Non-objectivism. What you said here, takes the same from as the (A) (B) (C) from before, yet is labelled differently.
You seem to agree with the ice cream (obj/non-obj) response (although will word it differently), but not the child abuse (obj/non-obj) response. Instead, there, you would say something like:

Objectivism/non-objectivism: I think Johnny should act in line with my preference on child abuse, not what he prefers.

Now, to wording the ice cream response differently. You probably think it is something like this:

Preference: I prefer for Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes. Susan prefers Johnny to eat the ice cream she likes.
Objective truth: There is no objective truth on what one should prefer here.
Objectivism/non-objectivism: ???
Objectivism/non-objectivism: Everyone has their own answer, correctness (the way I use the word - objective truth) does not apply; facts and reasons are ultimately useless; disagreement is impossible. That's (B).
Preference: I think Johnny should act in line with my preference, i.e. eat the ice cream he likes. AKA I prefer for Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes. They mean the exact same thing, as opposed to "I prefer for Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes" implies "Johnny should eat the ice cream he likes." That's (C).
With "x is y" I meant specific claims like: pistachio ice cream does not taste good. In (A), the objectivist thinks pistachio ice cream objectively tastes bad for all. In (B), the person thinks there is no objective goodness. In (C), the objective/non-objective issue is ignored and the person simply says pistachio ice cream tastes bad to them.
What's so different between "pistachio ice cream does not taste good" and "taste is subjective?" It follows the exact same format:
Taste is subjective. In (A), the objectivist thinks taste is objectively subjective. In (B), the person thinks there is no objective truth as to whether taste is subjective. In (C), the objective/non-objective issue is ignored and the person simply says he prefer the idea that taste is subjective.
While I disagree, that's not the point of our conversation. I'm talking about when you judge another person's actions (not what you will do because that action), what that is based on. Is it based on there being an objective fact of reality, is it based on there being a subjective fact of reality, or is it solely based on an unexplicable feeling you get when thinking about that kind of action (or something else)?
I've made my answer very clear: As with all (C)'s, it's solely based on an inexplicable feeling I get when thinking about that kind of action, if not directly, then by breaking the issue down into things that I do have a direct, inexplicable feeling on. The other suggestions can be ruled out as nonsensical.
Okay, so we have:

1) Personal hallucination: I dislike this environmental policy.

2) Applying that hallucination to one's self or Judging oneself on one's own personal subjective experience: I should not vote for it. I should try to get another policy through, etc.

3) Applying that hallucination to others or Judging others on one's own personal subjective experience: I think Johnny should not vote for it because I have a feeling of dislike towards it.

4) Judging others on an objective feature of reality: That environmental policy is objectively wrong. Johnny should not vote for it.

5) Judging others on a subjective feature of reality: That environmental policy is not objectively right or wrong; environmental policies are subjective kinds of things. Johnny likes the policy (for whatever reason). Johnny should vote for it because that is his subjective experience.
Right, and the same comments as before applies. (1) is fine; (2) is an expression of (1); (3) makes no sense; (4) valid stance but not one I hold - I am not an policy objectivist; (5) makes no sense.
Perhaps you were thinking this (1) and (2) matched other lists that had a (1) and (2). We've had different ones, that I've meant to remain separate, that numbers between lists don't mean anything. I probably should have started using different symbols for each. In this list, these are four distinct things.
Sure. There are these two preferences in play: Do I like to abuse children, and do I like it when children are abused; Does Johnny like to abuse children and does Johnny like it when children are abused. I don't care about what Johnny likes when I judge things.
No. You having a hallucination is simply having a subjective experience of something, considered as though no one else existed. Do you like the taste of this ice cream? In judging Johnny we introduce the existence of others that are doing different actions than you are and how you judge them performing their actions.
That's a rather odd restriction. Judging Johnny's appearance, I think Johnny is handsome, I like his look. Is this disqualified as a hallucination because it is not a subjective experience of something, considered as though no one else existed?

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #557

Post by The Tanager »

Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amThat's the non-sequitur I was referring to: that you have no good reason to be against freedom, is not a reason to allow freedom.
Allowing freedom is my default position. So, having no good reason against allowing freedom is a reason to allow freedom. But that was not visible in my wording, so let's update the phrasing:

I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because I believe personal freedom to be good and I think taste is a subjective feature of reality.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 am
You: I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because...
That's the way I roll. I was built that way.
And I roll a different way. This doesn't answer the question, or, at least, not helpfully. It amounts to saying that we like people to have freedom in food taste because we like people to have freedom in food taste. That's the tautology I've brought up in the past. It doesn't explain why we like people to have freedom.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 am
I say chocolate ice cream tastes good to me --> In this moment I should act upon what tastes good to me --> choosing to eat chocolate ice cream.
So "should eat" and "choosing to eat" is not the same but one trivially implies the other?
Yes, but coming to the should is distinct from following through with that should.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amThat last claim looks like a preference to me, it ignores the Objectivism/Non-objectivism issue. It's the second claim that deals with Objectivism/Non-objectivism. What you said here, takes the same from as the (A) (B) (C) from before, yet is labelled differently.
It's a "preference" in the same way "I think the Earth is spherical" is also a "preference." I'm trying to get at the difference between one's subjective experience of something and pronouncing a judgment on someone else's actions (or pronouncing a judgment on their own subjective experience, for that matter).
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amObjectivism/non-objectivism: Everyone has their own answer, correctness (the way I use the word - objective truth) does not apply; facts and reasons are ultimately useless; disagreement is impossible. That's (B).
Simple subjectivism covers that everyone has their own answer. Obj/Non-obj is about judging those answers. One can judge the answer on X (say, the belief that the shape of the Earth is an objective fact), judge it on not-X (the belief that the shape of the Earth is a subjective fact), judge it on Y (one's own subjective experience of reality), or not judge it at all and simply share one's own subjective experience of reality. But if you don't judge the other person's answer, if you don't judge their action, then you aren't doing Obj/Non-obj.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amPreference: I think Johnny should act in line with my preference, i.e. eat the ice cream he likes. AKA I prefer for Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes. They mean the exact same thing, as opposed to "I prefer for Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes" implies "Johnny should eat the ice cream he likes." That's (C).
In post 552, you said that one should use "preferred" for this concept of "should". So, are you saying that "I prefer Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes" implies "Johnny prefers to eat the ice cream he likes"?
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amWhat's so different between "pistachio ice cream does not taste good" and "taste is subjective?" It follows the exact same format:
One is a specific example of the other.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amTaste is subjective. In (A), the objectivist thinks taste is objectively subjective. In (B), the person thinks there is no objective truth as to whether taste is subjective. In (C), the objective/non-objective issue is ignored and the person simply says he prefer the idea that taste is subjective.
That kind of confusion is why "X is Y" isn't talking about "taste is subjective". (B) is coming to the conclusion that taste is subjective, it's not claiming that "taste is subjective" is itself subjective. If you allow that, then why not then talk about why "taste is subjective is subjective" is subjective or not?
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amI've made my answer very clear: As with all (C)'s, it's solely based on an inexplicable feeling I get when thinking about that kind of action, if not directly, then by breaking the issue down into things that I do have a direct, inexplicable feeling on.
Then you are coming to a conclusion based on analyzing yourself alone, not reality outside of yourself. You are simply sharing your subjective experience of something. You are doing simple subjectivism, not non-objectivism.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amThe other suggestions can be ruled out as nonsensical.
It is not nonsensical for things outside of your subjective experience of reality to affect your belief on something. The actual shape of the Earth affects your "preference" on what the shape of the Earth is. If you were a non-objectivist about the shape of the Earth, then that would affect your "preference" on what the shape of the Earth is, as well. If you are just doing simple subjectivism, then it doesn't matter because you are only going on your own inexplicable feeling and ignoring reality outside of yourself.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amRight, and the same comments as before applies. (1) is fine; (2) is an expression of (1); (3) makes no sense; (4) valid stance but not one I hold - I am not an policy objectivist; (5) makes no sense.
And the same comments apply from me.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amSure. There are these two preferences in play: Do I like to abuse children, and do I like it when children are abused; Does Johnny like to abuse children and does Johnny like it when children are abused. I don't care about what Johnny likes when I judge things.
Hence you are only doing simple subjectivism, not non-objectivism.
Bust Nak wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 5:41 amThat's a rather odd restriction. Judging Johnny's appearance, I think Johnny is handsome, I like his look. Is this disqualified as a hallucination because it is not a subjective experience of something, considered as though no one else existed?
I'm not meaning that. The subjective experience is "Bust Nak thinks Johnny is handsome." Susan looks at Johnny and has a different subjective experience: "Susan thinks Johnny is hideous." What is your judgment of Susan's subjective experience?

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #558

Post by Bust Nak »

The Tanager wrote: Thu Sep 24, 2020 2:57 pm Allowing freedom is my default position. So, having no good reason against allowing freedom is a reason to allow freedom. But that was not visible in my wording, so let's update the phrasing:

I like people to have the freedom to make their ice cream choices based on their own subjective experience of ice cream flavors because I believe personal freedom to be good and I think taste is a subjective feature of reality.
And why is allowing freedom is your default position? Point being, that looks an awful lot like a (C), your subjective experience, as opposed to a (B).
And I roll a different way. This doesn't answer the question, or, at least, not helpfully. It amounts to saying that we like people to have freedom in food taste because we like people to have freedom in food taste. That's the tautology I've brought up in the past. It doesn't explain why we like people to have freedom.
Looking for reasons in preference is a fool's errand. You've already accepted that ultimately there is no reasons months ago.
Yes, but coming to the should is distinct from following through with that should.
Okay, I can agree with that.
It's a "preference" in the same way "I think the Earth is spherical" is also a "preference." I'm trying to get at the difference between one's subjective experience of something and pronouncing a judgment on someone else's actions (or pronouncing a judgment on their own subjective experience, for that matter).
Wait, are you trying to differentiate merely judging someone in your mind, and the act of making that that judgment known? If so, then sure, one is a thought the other is an action. It's the same difference between thinking ice-cream is tasty, and saying it out loud. But there is no difference between one's subjective experience of something and one's judgment on someone else's actions (minus the pronouncing.)
Simple subjectivism covers that everyone has their own answer. Obj/Non-obj is about judging those answers. One can judge the answer on X (say, the belief that the shape of the Earth is an objective fact), judge it on not-X (the belief that the shape of the Earth is a subjective fact), judge it on Y (one's own subjective experience of reality), or not judge it at all and simply share one's own subjective experience of reality. But if you don't judge the other person's answer, if you don't judge their action, then you aren't doing Obj/Non-obj.
I agree with much of that, apart from the first bit. Simple subjectivism covers what everyone's own answer are, i.e. the content of their subjective experience. That everyone has their own answer where correctness does not apply, is judging those answers.
In post 552, you said that one should use "preferred" for this concept of "should". So, are you saying that "I prefer Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes" implies "Johnny prefers to eat the ice cream he likes"?
No, I said swap it for your concept of "correct." While Johnny does prefer to eat the ice cream he likes, it's not because I prefer Johnny to eat the ice cream he likes.
One is a specific example of the other.
And why is this significant? I asked what is so different?
That kind of confusion is why "X is Y" isn't talking about "taste is subjective". (B) is coming to the conclusion that taste is subjective, it's not claiming that "taste is subjective" is itself subjective. If you allow that, then why not then talk about why "taste is subjective is subjective" is subjective or not?
What is the confusing here? We use different kind of reasoning for different claims. "Is taste is subjective?" has an objective answer based on an objective feature of reality, we use (A) type reasoning. Given that taste is subjective, we can use (B) type reasoning to come to conclusion such as "there is no correct answers to matters of taste." This isn't claiming "taste is subjective" is itself subjective.

The way you are using (B) sounds like circular reasoning, "taste is subjective" because "taste is a subjective feature of reality."
Then you are coming to a conclusion based on analyzing yourself alone, not reality outside of yourself. You are simply sharing your subjective experience of something. You are doing simple subjectivism, not non-objectivism.
Of course, I was speaking about (C) after all. Were you expecting anything else? This is me doing something more than share my subjective experience, doing non-objectivism: judgment, whether on ice-cream or people, is a subjective feature of reality, as such has no correct answer. (B).
It is not nonsensical for things outside of your subjective experience of reality to affect your belief on something. The actual shape of the Earth affects your "preference" on what the shape of the Earth is.
But I was talking about (C). As you said, when doing simple subjectivism, it doesn't matter because I am only going on your own inexplicable feeling and ignoring reality outside of oneself.
If you were a non-objectivist about the shape of the Earth, then that would affect your "preference" on what the shape of the Earth is, as well.
This bit I deny as nonsensical. (B) does not inform the content of one's subjective experience.
Hence you are only doing simple subjectivism, not non-objectivism.
Yes, we have established that all the way back in May. This is me doing non-objectivism: Correctness does not apply, Johnny is not correct/incorrect for abusing children, nor am I correct/incorrect for judging him wrong. Facts and argument is ultimately useless. Me and Johnny are not actually disagreeing in an important sense of the word "disagree."
I'm not meaning that. The subjective experience is "Bust Nak thinks Johnny is handsome." Susan looks at Johnny and has a different subjective experience: "Susan thinks Johnny is hideous." What is your judgment of Susan's subjective experience?
"Meh." AKA my subjective experience of Susan's subjective experience.

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #559

Post by The Tanager »

I think this is what it comes down to.
Bust Nak wrote: Fri Sep 25, 2020 5:49 amOf course, I was speaking about (C) after all. Were you expecting anything else? This is me doing something more than share my subjective experience, doing non-objectivism: judgment, whether on ice-cream or people, is a subjective feature of reality, as such has no correct answer. (B).
Johnny abuses a child. Is (A), (B), or (C) going to inform your moral reaction? You believe (B) is true, i.e., you believe your (C) is a personal hallucination. Yet, you still act on (C); you act on your personal hallucination.

You claim that no one can act on (B), but that's not true. People do it. They dislike child abuse, but say Johnny's truth is different and he should be allowed his freedom there.

I do it with ice cream. My personal hallucination is that chocolate ice cream tastes good, but I believe (B) is true; that there is no correct answer about the taste of chocolate ice cream. Because taste is a subjective feature of reality, what the subjects should do is dependent on the subjective part they reside in. Rather than say that Johnny should eat chocolate ice cream (C), I allow Johnny's choice to be judged by his subjective experience (B).

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Re: Subjective Morality

Post #560

Post by Bust Nak »

The Tanager wrote: Fri Sep 25, 2020 7:55 am Johnny abuses a child. Is (A), (B), or (C) going to inform your moral reaction? You believe (B) is true, i.e., you believe your (C) is a personal hallucination. Yet, you still act on (C); you act on your personal hallucination.
Yep, just as you do with ice-cream. Is (A), (B), or (C) going to inform your taste reaction? You believe (B) is true, i.e., you believe your (C) is a personal hallucination. Yet, you still act on (C); you act on your personal hallucination.
You claim that no one can act on (B), but that's not true. People do it. They dislike child abuse, but say Johnny's truth is different and he should be allowed his freedom there.
They think they are doing it, but that's not possible since it's an incoherent position. What they are actually doing is acting on their personal hallucination (C) they like personal freedom.
I do it with ice cream. My personal hallucination is that chocolate ice cream tastes good, but I believe (B) is true; that there is no correct answer about the taste of chocolate ice cream. Because taste is a subjective feature of reality, what the subjects should do is dependent on the subjective part they reside in.
You say because taste is subjective, but why this conclusion and not what the subjects should do is dependent on the subjective part the evaluator resides in?

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