Grammatical accuracy

Definition of terms and explanation of concepts

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Grammatical accuracy

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Post by shnarkle »

Is it grammatically correct to equate the verb to be with the genitive of possession?

This question arose in my mind due to someone claiming: "I am my body".

Another way of putting it would be to ask, "Is being equivalent to having"?

I suspect that the answer to both question is, "no".

This doesn't seem to be enough to prove my case though.

As closely related as identification is to identity, identification is not identity, and an abstract construction of the mind cannot be a physical body.

On a forum where believers accept the existence of demons who possess bodies, I am bewildered as to their insistence in adopting this same characteristic themselves.

For those who don't accept this idea, I can only rely upon grammar.

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