Does God have a favorit race of people?

[SanMan]

Hello Everybody,
I'm new to this forum and I’ve been doing some thinking. And I want your thoughts on this too. This is for all you people who believe in God. If you don’t really believe in God you might not want to waste your time on this stuff. You might wanna pursue something else that’s worthwhile to you. Does God favor one race over another? Hmm? That’s a good question to ask yourself. Isn’t it?
I pose this question because it’s pretty evident that there are differences in the races. This spectrum of the races ranges all the way from the Whites to the blacks. It varies greatly. Oh yes, God is a god of variety. Variety is the spice of life. Right? I think God may have done it this way not only to make life interesting but also to show his great range. Wouldn’t you say? I’m a black guy and am 48 now. This reminds me of something some white guy was telling me 15 or 20 years ago. He was telling me that all the different races had their own vibrations frequency. And that the higher the frequency the more intelligent and good looking and classier and whatever else they are. In short the better you are. Then he said that White people had the highest vibration frequency and that blacks had the lowest frequency. Now at the time I wasn’t trying to hear none of that. That was a bunch of stupidness I thought. And who the heck does he think he is. The arrogant S.O.B. Thinking he’s better than me.
Now years later after some not so great experiences and having a little time to digest things and reflect I guess I sort of agree with him a little bit. I don’t know about the vibrations bit but there is a natural difference emanating from the genes of the races I think. Like I was telling this White pastor friend of mine when I was living in Spokane, WA. If you really look all throughout history, what race of people would you say was the most blessed race of all the races? The White race. Right? They had (and still do mind you) the best of everything. And in great abundance too. They were the pioneers in everything. They also dominated the other races. Whether it be enslaving them or taking their land or what have you. So I submit to you that God does bless or favor one race of people more so than any other. And there’s also a hierarchy of the races involved too. Whites at the top. Blacks at the bottom. Now don’t get me wrong guys after looking at the big picture I think it’s a perfectly designed scenario. Now I might not be the most ecstatic person in the world about it because the role I play in this movie is not the lead role. I’m actually more akin to one of the dare I say it …ahem… bad guys. Now whenever I suggest to a black person that Whites are …and I hate to use this term… “better� than blacks and that that’s the way God designed it. They get like I was 15 or 20 years ago and just ain’t goin for it. No way. No how. I never did ask a White person that though. But I suspect I know how they’ll respond based on what I’ve seen on film interviews and also what I’ve read. But that’s just a suspicion. I really would like to get your opinions on this question though. Regardless of what race you are. So please tell everybody what you think about this and your age and what race you are. Ok?


Remember now:

1) Do you think that God has blessed or favored one race of people more than the others?
2) If so which race has he blessed more so than any other?
3) How old are you?
4) What race do you belong to?


Thanks.

[micatala]

Moderator Formal Warning

Moderator Intervention

. . . .

I am exposing everybit of this nonsense you guys talk...

I am exposing the truth on this site whether you like it or not...

cnorman has been exposed... if you continue on you will be exposed too so stop while you still have your dignity...

For some crazy reason you all want to continue down the road of KHAZARS but dont wanna get into the scriptures... because you know you will be exposed...

I have yet had anyone to interpret the scriptures i put forth in any other way...
I will not respond to anymore KHAZAR comments that never was my case and is very minor to what i have posted here...

The comments here are getting into the realm of the personal. There is no reason to impugn the dignity of other members of the forum or impute "Khazar" viewpoints to them that they do not state themselves.


Also, please be aware that forum rules ask that claims be substantiated. We typically let posters challenge each other to provide evidence, but repeated refusal to provide evidence for claims can draw moderator attention.

This is nonsense... i said the word KHAZAR one time... go back and read! all of you... so for you all to continue down this KHAZAR road is simply childish... Get it over it move on... address the real issue here...

Please consult the rules. Challenges or questions on moderator actions must be made via PM. You can respond to the moderator who posted the intervention or warning or another moderator as you wish.


Please keep in mind that in making a claim, it is your responsibility to support it. It is not sufficient simply to claim that no one has refuted you.

[kourvoisier]

Others have claimed that you are associated with some cult, but not me. I am not sure I know what a cult is.

I personally do not care whether what you say can be supported by Holy Scripture or not. I do not believe in any gods nor in any revelation from God. But, for what it is worth, you might be a bit more convincing if you could show that you are not the only person who reads into those passages what you do. The Bible is one of the most studied books ever. Certainly there must be others who share your understanding. I find myself extra skeptical about people with singular uniquely new understandings about any topic.

I can applaud these remarks I can also respect your opinions. This was the most unbias, level headed and straight up comment that has been made thus far to any of my post here...

Moderator Formal Warning

Moderator Intervention



The comments here are getting into the realm of the personal. There is no reason to impugn the dignity of other members of the forum or impute "Khazar" viewpoints to them that they do not state themselves.


Also, please be aware that forum rules ask that claims be substantiated. We typically let posters challenge each other to provide evidence, but repeated refusal to provide evidence for claims can draw moderator attention.

This is nonsense... i said the word KHAZAR one time... go back and read! all of you... so for you all to continue down this KHAZAR road is simply childish... Get it over it move on... address the real issue here...

Please consult the rules. Challenges or questions on moderator actions must be made via PM. You can respond to the moderator who posted the intervention or warning or another moderator as you wish.


Please keep in mind that in making a claim, it is your responsibility to support it. It is not sufficient simply to claim that no one has refuted you.

For the sake of you guys getting over it I will "withdraw the claim" about the KHAZARS

Thank you. That didn't hurt too much, did it.

Clearly I withdrew the claim... and micatala still wishes not to move forward...

Its like this guys, I stated originally to cnorman that the curses of Deut chapter 28 was a prophecy he agreed. See below:

Where does the Bible say they ever were? Deuteronomy says they WILL be. It's a PROPHECY, genius, and it is said to be fulfilled NOWHERE.

I replied to cnorman:

Daniel 9:11
"Yea, all Israel have trangressed thy law, even by departing, that they might not obey thy voice; therefore the CURSE is poured upon us, and the oath that is written in the law of MOSES the servant of God, because we have sinned against him."

You seem to like saying people are "exposed" a lot. What exactly has been "exposed"? If anything, the consensus around here is that what is revealed is that you fail to adequately support the far-flung claims that you make.

cnorman clearly seems to be calling the prophet Daniel a liar with his statement...
OTSENG do you now see why i have said that cnorman has been exposed... I say exposed because after his remarks above he was left vulnerable and open... he had "no protection" against what he said because it was false. And i proved it to him... There has also been other excerpts that he was exposed... please review everything that has been posted...

As a result since the prophet Daniel stated the prophecy would come to past... somebody explain to me when it did past in our history as far as we know???

Thats all i ask... For everyone to sit here and shoot me down and say i am blowing this out of context and this is far fetched is absolutely in denial and biased towards the old false teachings and refuses to display their interpretation...

[otseng]

Where does the Bible say they ever were? Deuteronomy says they WILL be. It's a PROPHECY, genius, and it is said to be fulfilled NOWHERE.

I replied to cnorman:

Daniel 9:11
"Yea, all Israel have trangressed thy law, even by departing, that they might not obey thy voice; therefore the CURSE is poured upon us, and the oath that is written in the law of MOSES the servant of God, because we have sinned against him."

cnorman clearly seems to be calling the prophet Daniel a liar with his statement...
OTSENG do you now see why i have said that cnorman has been exposed...

No, I don't. Also, I would suggest that you desist from using the words "exposed" or "liar" or any such terms. Especially in light of the fact that your position has not even presented itself to be supported. Also, if someone disagrees with another's interpretation, that doesn't make him a "liar".

So, if I'm getting you right, Deut 28:68 is a fulfilled prophecy referring to the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade. And Dan 9:11 says that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled. Is this correct?

[kourvoisier]

So, if I'm getting you right, Deut 28:68 is a fulfilled prophecy referring to the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade. And Dan 9:11 says that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled. Is this correct?

Yes you are absolutely 100% correct. Further more Dan 9:12 states:
"...Under the whole heaven nothing has ever been done like what has been done to Jerusalem."

Key word "EVER"
You show me something in history that has "EVER" been done worst to a group of people then the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade...

[otseng]

So, if I'm getting you right, Deut 28:68 is a fulfilled prophecy referring to the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade. And Dan 9:11 says that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled. Is this correct?

Yes you are absolutely 100% correct. Further more Dan 9:12 states:
"...Under the whole heaven nothing has ever been done like what has been done to Jerusalem."

The book of Daniel was written sometime between 6th and 2nd century BC.

The book presents itself as the work of a prophet named Daniel who lived during the 6th century BCE.[35] Modern critical biblical scholarship dates the Book of Daniel to the 2nd century BCE,

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Da ... nd_content

But in the time of Daniel, the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade had not even happened yet. It would be over many hundreds of years after the book of Daniel was written for it to happen. So, Dan 9:11 cannot mean that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled if Deut 28:68 was referring to the slave trade.

The Atlantic slave trade, also known as the transatlantic slave trade, was the enslavement and transportation, primarily of African people, to the colonies of the New World that occurred in and around the Atlantic Ocean. It lasted from the 16th to the 19th centuries.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trans_Atlantic_Slave_Trade

So, your interpretation is not even consistent with history.

[Jester]

Moderator Warning

Please consult the rules. Challenges or questions on moderator actions must be made via PM. You can respond to the moderator who posted the intervention or warning or another moderator as you wish.


Please keep in mind that in making a claim, it is your responsibility to support it. It is not sufficient simply to claim that no one has refuted you.

Clearly I withdrew the claim... and micatala still wishes not to move forward...

As has been pointed out, challenges to moderator warnings are not allowed under the rules.

[kourvoisier]

First of all thanks for addressing the scriptures...
Lets proceed.

The book of Daniel was written sometime between 6th and 2nd century BC.
The book presents itself as the work of a prophet named Daniel who lived during the 6th century BCE.[35] Modern critical biblical scholarship dates the Book of Daniel to the 2nd century BCE...

But in the time of Daniel, the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade had not even happened yet. It would be over many hundreds of years after the book of Daniel was written for it to happen. So, Dan 9:11 cannot mean that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled if Deut 28:68 was referring to the slave trade.

The prophecy of Moses didnt have to happen during the time of Daniel... the curses in Deut 28. are many, verse 68 was only 1...

Daniel clearly said in Dan 9:11 "therefore the CURSE is poured upon us, and the oath that is written in the law of MOSES the servant of God"

2 questions for you please answer...

1) After reading Daniel 9:11, do you agree that the curses that Moses talked about in Deut. chapter 28 came upon the children of Israel?

I know you answered Yes to question #1 but if you answered no please explain

2)If you answered Yes to question 1 then please explain when did Deut. chapter 28:68 happen?

If the slaves on slave ships during the Trans Atlantic Slave trade were not Israelites then tell me when the Israelites went into slavery on slave ships between 6th and 2nd century BC to 2010AD

To say that the prophecy of Deut 28:68 never happened is to say the prophet Daniel was incorrect in what he said in Daniel 9:11...

The Atlantic slave trade, also known as the transatlantic slave trade, was the enslavement and transportation, primarily of African people, to the colonies of the New World that occurred in and around the Atlantic Ocean. It lasted from the 16th to the 19th centuries.

So, your interpretation is not even consistent with history.

This statement is incorrect... Daniel never put a time stamp on Moses prophecy of exactly when Israel would go into bondage on slave ships... so to say its inconsistent with history is incorrect please withdraw that statement.

Those so called African people you are referring to are Israelites... The people who actually sold the "Israelties" on the coast of Africa during Slave trade were the Africans not the people being sold...

[otseng]

1) After reading Daniel 9:11, do you agree that the curses that Moses talked about in Deut. chapter 28 came upon the children of Israel?

I do not believe that it was only during time of Daniel that the children of Israel was cursed.

For example, Deu 28:53 says "And thou shalt eat the fruit of thine own body, the flesh of thy sons and of thy daughters, which the LORD thy God hath given thee, in the siege, and in the straitness, wherewith thine enemies shall distress thee"

When did this happen?

To say that the prophecy of Deut 28:68 never happened is to say the prophet Daniel was incorrect in what he said in Daniel 9:11...

I do not believe the Babylonian captivity was the only time they were cursed. And if you believe that this was the only time they were cursed, then what does an event that occurred over a thousand years later have to do with it?

This statement is incorrect... Daniel never put a time stamp on Moses prophecy of exactly when Israel would go into bondage on slave ships... so to say its inconsistent with history is incorrect please withdraw that statement.

You agreed to "Deut 28:68 is a fulfilled prophecy referring to the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade. And Dan 9:11 says that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled."

Now you are changing your position that Daniel didn't say Deut 28:68 was fulfilled.

Those so called African people you are referring to are Israelites...

Show evidence for this please. I have not seen any evidence that the slaves brought to the Americas descended from Israel, or even practiced Judaism.

The people who actually sold the "Israelties" on the coast of Africa during Slave trade were the Africans not the people being sold...

I'm not sure your point here. My reference to Deut 28:68 with "and no man shall buy [you]" is referring to the fact that when Africans were brought to the Americas, the people bought the slaves. So, this is in conflict with your interpretation of Deut 28:68.

Also, if Egypt is symbolic (which I don't necessarily agree or disagree with), why couldn't "ships" likewise also be symbolic? Why should "ships" be taken literally, but "Egypt" symbolically?

[McCulloch]

Challenge my interpretations of the scriptures with yours if you cant do then i rest my case...

Well, I do think that you should give your case, such as it is, a rest.

When Jesus prophesied about the Romans taking over in 70 CE where did he tell the Jews to flee to???
When King Herod heard about the messiah being born where did the Angel tell Mary and Joseph to flee to???

The answer to both of those questions is Africa. Why because they could blend in and hide with people who look like them. Matthew 24:16 - Matthew 2:13

Mary and Joseph were told to flee for safety in neighboring Egypt, also under Roman rule. Egypt is in Africa. Africa has dark-skinned people. Therefore, Mary and Joseph must have been dark-skinned.

Where to start? There is nothing in the text indicating that their skin-coloring would help them to hide, Egypt during the Roman period was a busy cosmopolitan part of the Mediterranean world with many different peoples coming and going. A good place for anyone to hide.

Please Read Revelation 2:9 & 3:9 Lets see what Jesus himself says!

Revelation is a highly symbolic book. Yes, there will be, according to Revelation, false religions. You probably cannot read a whole lot more into this with any great degree of confidence.

Lets go to Exodus 4:6&7

God performs a miracle, changing Moses' hand temporarily leprous, like snow and then reverting it back to its normal color. Therefore, you conclude Moses must have been dark skinned. Even among my own ancestral people, the quite light skinned Celts, our skin being make leprous, like snow, or albino, is noticeably different from our normal state. It would be even more noticeable among the various peoples who historically live about the Mediterranean. Your conclusion is again not warranted from the text.

Our current banking system which is rapidly becoming the "mark of the beast" cashless society but that is another story and yes the so called "Jews" are behind that.

John Law, a Scottish economist, in 1716 established the Banque Générale in France, a bank, with three-quarters of the capital consisted of government bills and government-accepted notes, effectively making it the first central bank of the nation. He was responsible for the Mississippi Bubble and a chaotic economic collapse in France. So why is it that you don't blame the Scots for the evils of central banking?

[Cathar1950]

1) After reading Daniel 9:11, do you agree that the curses that Moses talked about in Deut. chapter 28 came upon the children of Israel?

I do not believe that it was only during time of Daniel that the children of Israel was cursed.

For example, Deu 28:53 says "And thou shalt eat the fruit of thine own body, the flesh of thy sons and of thy daughters, which the LORD thy God hath given thee, in the siege, and in the straitness, wherewith thine enemies shall distress thee"

When did this happen?

To say that the prophecy of Deut 28:68 never happened is to say the prophet Daniel was incorrect in what he said in Daniel 9:11...

I do not believe the Babylonian captivity was the only time they were cursed. And if you believe that this was the only time they were cursed, then what does an event that occurred over a thousand years later have to do with it?

This statement is incorrect... Daniel never put a time stamp on Moses prophecy of exactly when Israel would go into bondage on slave ships... so to say its inconsistent with history is incorrect please withdraw that statement.

You agreed to "Deut 28:68 is a fulfilled prophecy referring to the Trans Atlantic Slave Trade. And Dan 9:11 says that Deut 28:68 was fulfilled."

Now you are changing your position that Daniel didn't say Deut 28:68 was fulfilled.

Those so called African people you are referring to are Israelites...

Show evidence for this please. I have not seen any evidence that the slaves brought to the Americas descended from Israel, or even practiced Judaism.

The people who actually sold the "Israelties" on the coast of Africa during Slave trade were the Africans not the people being sold...

I'm not sure your point here. My reference to Deut 28:68 with "and no man shall buy [you]" is referring to the fact that when Africans were brought to the Americas, the people bought the slaves. So, this is in conflict with your interpretation of Deut 28:68.

Also, if Egypt is symbolic (which I don't necessarily agree or disagree with), why couldn't "ships" likewise also be symbolic? Why should "ships" be taken literally, but "Egypt" symbolically?

Well put.
I question any curses being in effect now or then as I see the Deuteronomy history as an ideological history. The Israelite never left Yahweh, El or whoever as they were all evolving together and like their ancient neighbors they were all chosen by their gods and there was a time that even the Israelite acknowledge others gods. It is an invention starting with Hezekiah's reforms(Isaiah) up to Josiah's (Jeremiah)shaped fro the captivity on used t make people feel guilt for not obeying the laws enforced by Persians just as they justified the reforms and expansions of Josiah.
Do we really want to entertain the idea they were cursed?
I guess their curse might be a little fulfilling as it sets them apart as a means of identity and bonding.
I question the whole idea of race as if the people of Africa were some race.
We all came out of Africa so in a way we are all African.

It seems the idea of race is more like tribe or nation and has only accidental skin relationships, especially in the middle-east. There doesn't seem to be much difference between the Canaanites and the Israelite peoples, if any, as far as families go, which seems to be more narrow then race, and we see some similarities between them and Phoenicians.