Matthew 12:40

[rstrats]

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion� with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase “x� days and “x�nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the “x� days and at least parts of the “x� nights?

[brianbbs67]

brianbbs67,
re: "...just offering an alternative, as anyone can see there are not 3 days and nights between friday and sunday beginning.

In fact there is only 1 night time and 1 daytime between Friday and Sunday.



re: "Which I think was your point?"

Actually, it isn't. If someone says that something is common, in order to legitimately make that assertion they would have to know of other instances to support their assertion of commonality. I am simply asking to see some of them.

Actually, there is Friday day, Sabbath night, Sabbath day, then Sunday(evening Saturday), and if in the morning, day again.

[rstrats]

brianbbs67,
re: "Actually, there is Friday day, Sabbath night, Sabbath day, then Sunday(evening Saturday), and if in the morning, day again."

I'm afraid I'm missing your point.

[rstrats]

Perhaps a little different wording will make the topic a bit more clear:

1. The Messiah said that three nights would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth".

2. There are some who believe that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.

3. Of those, there are some who believe that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb.

4. However, those two beliefs allow for only 2 nights to be involved.

5. To account for the discrepancy, some of the above say that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language of the time, i.e., that it is was common to forecast or say that a day or a night would be involved with an event when no part of the day or no part of the night could occur.

6. In order for someone to legitimately say that it was common, they would have to know of more that 1 example to make that assertion.

I simply wonder if anyone knows of examples to support the idea of commonality?

[TripleZ]

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion� with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase “x� days and “x�nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the “x� days and at least parts of the “x� nights?

A day is a period of darkness that is followed by a period of light of the same duration.

A day on the North pole, is six months of darkness followed by 6 months of light, a day on Mars, Venus, Jupiter, etc, etc, are all periods of darkness followed by equal periods of light, but no two days are of the same duration.

The three hours of darkness, from Mid-day to 3 PM, which was followed by the three hours of light, from 3 PM, to 6 PM, was the day when Jesus was killed and buried in the family tomb of his half brother, Joseph of Arimathea, which had never been used, suggesting that the father of Mary's second son, was still alive at the time of the crucifixion.

Although sometimes a day can refer to the period of light alone, as Jesus once said, "A Day has 12 hours has it not? So work while the light is with you."

The first day in which Jesus was dead, was the 3 hour period of light that followed the three hours of darkness on Thursday, which was the day of preparation to the Passover, the first night was Friday night, the night when the Jews ate their Passover lamb, the second day was Friday, the third night was Saturday night, and and the third day was Saturday, and it was sometime in the evening, which was the beginning of Sunday night, that he rose from the grave, and the women who came in the darkness of Sunday morning, found the tomb to be empty.

well this coul well be that many do not know to whom the Scriptures are addressing at certain times,,, like the OT is directly TO Israel... then we have the Gentiles and now since the resurrection
we have the Messianic Church ( The Church ) Paul was sent to the Christian Church....

so you can be assured that all of the OT is to Judaism/Israel and also the 4 gospel books also.

Mat 15:23 But Yeshua did not say a word to her. Then his talmidim came to him and urged him, "Send her away, because she is following us and keeps pestering us with her crying."
Mat 15:24 He said, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Isra'el."
Mat 15:25 But she came, fell at his feet and said, "Sir, help me!"

eg; verse 24...

[rstrats]

TripleZ,

I'm afraid your post #132 is with regard to a different topic. Perhaps you could start one.

[rstrats]

Perhaps someone new looking in may know of examples.

[rstrats]

[Replying to post 129 by brianbbs67]

re: "Actually, there is Friday day, Sabbath night, Sabbath day, then Sunday(evening Saturday), and if in the morning, day again."


What is your point?

[JehovahsWitness]

Perhaps someone new looking in may know of examples.

Why do there have to be examples? Why could Jesus not have used the expression in a unique way subject only to the way he saw things?

[rstrats]

[Replying to post 136 by JehovahsWitness]

JehovahsWitness,
re: "Why do there have to be examples?"

Because in order for someone to legitimately say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech language of the time they would have to know of examples to support that claim

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 136 by JehovahsWitness]

JehovahsWitness,
re: "Why do there have to be examples?"

Because in order for someone to legitimately say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech language of the time they would have to know of examples to support that claim

Yes but my point is what if it wasn't a figure of speech at the time, what's to stop Jesus from initiating his own unique figure of speech?