Matthew 12:40

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rstrats
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Matthew 12:40

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Post by rstrats »

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion� with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase “x� days and “x�nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the “x� days and at least parts of the “x� nights?

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Post #171

Post by rstrats »

brianbbs67,
re: "Look up Matthew 28:1 in the greek. Greek says Sabbaths not Sabbath as the KJ and others do. That explains it all. "

Perhaps for a different topic, but not for this one. This one is concerned with one issue and only one issue.

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Post #172

Post by rstrats »

And that "someone new" needs to be someone who believes the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with a 1st day of the week resurrection, and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb, and who tries to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language of the period.

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Post #173

Post by marco »

rstrats wrote: And that "someone new" needs to be someone who believes the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with a 1st day of the week resurrection, and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb, and who tries to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language of the period.

If we were discussing some political arrangement we might raise an eyebrow at the uncertainty in the official "rose on the third day". That we are discussing "heaven's arrangements", a divine plan for a divine saviour, and we are trying to undo heaven's confusion, then it is time to smile. If heaven is no better than some third-rate political enterprise, we needn't spend too much time analysing its ineptitude. It is man's folly, not heaven's.

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Post #174

Post by rstrats »

marco,

Do you believe the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week - yes or no? If no, then this topic does not apply to you. If yes, do you also believe that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb" - yes or no? If no, then this topic does not apply to you. If yes, do you explain the lack of a third night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech, colloquial language - yes or no? If no, then this topic does not apply to you. If yes, what examples are you using to say that He was using common figure of speech/colloquial language?

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Post #175

Post by rstrats »

Perhaps someone new looking in may know of examples.

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Post #176

Post by brianbbs67 »

Why on earth would you try to make your belief fit something?? Wednesday works quite well in the proper year

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Post #177

Post by Checkpoint »

rstrats wrote: Perhaps someone new looking in may know of examples.
How about "Abraham's bosom", Luke 16:22?

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Post #178

Post by Checkpoint »

brianbbs67 wrote: Why on earth would you try to make your belief fit something?? Wednesday works quite well in the proper year
So you would say he died on Wednesday before sunset, and rose at a similar time on the Saturday?

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Post #179

Post by rstrats »

brianbbs67,
re: "Why on earth would you try to make your belief fit something??"

To whom is your post directed and to what belief are you referring?




re: "Wednesday works quite well in the proper year"

That would be an issue for a different topic. Maybe you could start one.

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Post #180

Post by rstrats »

Checkpoint,
re: "How about 'Abraham's bosom', Luke 16:22?"

How is that an example of a daytime or a night time being said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred?

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