Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

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Wootah
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Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

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Post by Wootah »

What was special about Jesus's sacrifice and in contrast why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Also was Jesus perfect?
Proverbs 18:17 The one who states his case first seems right, until the other comes and examines him.

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #31

Post by Miles »

JehovahsWitness wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 2:49 am
Miles wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 2:30 am So, according to the article "the kingdom Jesus referred to is to "consist of the restoration of Israel to a Davidic Kingdom .

Well I don't agree he was talking about that at all. So I am not about to argue in defence of a position I do not hold (strawman). I do not believe Jesus was announcing the reestablishment if the Davidic Kingdom of Israel as an independent State.

Anything else?
Absolutely.

In post 24 I asked you about The Kingdom of God/Heaven ; "1. when did it arrive? 2. What's its nature? And 3. what's your evidence?" and you said:

"After you . You made the claim he was wrong first (citing as evidence the above). I presume you are able to offer more than one word explanation of your argumentation to support your case. And yes, it would indeed be helpful for you first to define your terms (kingdom of God/heaven)." To which I complied.

So, now it's "After you" time. It's Your turn!

1. when did it arrive?
2. What its nature? And
3. what's your evidence?



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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #32

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Miles wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 1:22 pm
1. when did it arrive?
....


By "it" I take it you are asking what I (not wikepedia) believe the kingdom is. And by "arrive" I take it you are asking what *I* understand "arrive" to mean in said context.


Is that correct?




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http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 81#p826681


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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #33

Post by Eloi »

Tcg wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:51 am The previous sacrifices were sufficient under the Israelite theological system. When Jesus failed to reform that system and was put to death, his followers, writing primarily under the name of Paul, had to change the story. They created the new doctrine that one needed to rely on Jesus' sacrificial death. If you can't join them, beat them.
(...) Tcg
That is not the case. The sacrifices of the Law of Moses pointed to a greater sacrifice that would have to be performed later and that would cleanse human beings in a superior way than that system did. This was already predicted before the birth of Jesus:

Is. 53:10 But it was Jehovah’s will to crush him, and he let him become sick.
If you will present his life as a guilt offering,
He will see his offspring, he will prolong his days,
And through him the delight of Jehovah will have success.
11 Because of his anguish, he will see and be satisfied.
By means of his knowledge the righteous one, my servant,
Will bring a righteous standing to many people,
And their errors he will bear.
12 For that reason I will assign him a portion among the many,
And he will apportion the spoil with the mighty,
Because he poured out his life even to death
And was counted among the transgressors;
He carried the sin of many people,
And he interceded for the transgressors.

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #34

Post by Miles »

JehovahsWitness wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 1:32 pm
Miles wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 1:22 pm
1. when did it arrive?
....
By "it" I take it you are asking what I (not wikepedia) believe the kingdom is.
When I asked the question (in post 24) I hadn't even gone to the Wikipedia source yet, so yes, I mean what you consider the kingdom to be.

JehovahsWitness wrote:
And by "arrive" I take it you are asking what *I* understand "arrive" to mean in said context.
Is that correct?
By "arrive" I mean "arrive."

ar·rive
/əˈrīv/

verb: arrive; 3rd person present: arrives; past tense: arrived; past participle: arrived; gerund or present participle: arriving
reach a place at the end of a journey or a stage in a journey.
"we arrived at his house and knocked at the door"

(of a thing) be brought or delivered.

reach (a conclusion or decision).


When Jesus spoke of the kingdom it had not yet come, which is why he spoke of it in the future tense. But you now imply it's here. From your post, # 21:

"Was [the kingdom of heaven] at hand? *YEP!"
"Was god's kingdom near?** ABSOLUTELY!"
"Jesus got it all right : The kingdom of heaven was at hand."*

*at hand
nearby.
close in time; about to happen.

**near
2. only a short time ahead.

so between the time Jesus spoke of its imminent coming and now, after it has come, it would have to have arrived. Soooo. . .

1. when did it arrive?
2. What's its nature? And
3. what's your evidence?


NOTE. Source for definitions: Dictionary of Oxford Languages



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Last edited by Miles on Mon Sep 14, 2020 12:28 am, edited 1 time in total.

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #35

Post by 2timothy316 »

Wootah wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 1:28 am What was special about Jesus's sacrifice and in contrast why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?
The cost = an eternal life
The payment = an animal that lives 20 years
Are they equal? No.
Also was Jesus perfect?
Interesting that you'd ask this follow up question. Yet the cost and payment is not perfection.

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #36

Post by tam »

Peace to you,
2timothy316 wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 9:31 pm
Wootah wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 1:28 am What was special about Jesus's sacrifice and in contrast why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?
The cost = an eternal life
The payment = an animal that lives 20 years
Are they equal? No.
Yes, thank you for pointing this out.

And not just an eternal life, either, but the One who is the LIFE ("I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life).

Life for life.

Peace again to you, and to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy
Last edited by tam on Mon Sep 14, 2020 1:06 am, edited 1 time in total.

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #37

Post by Tcg »

2timothy316 wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 9:31 pm
The cost = an eternal life
The payment = an animal that lives 20 years
Are they equal? No.
Of course they're not equal. However, humans aren't eternal beings and therefore wouldn't need the sacrifice of an eternal life to pay any imagined debt they may owe.

Additionally, one could not sacrifice an eternal life because at the point of the sacrifice it would cease to be eternal. Given that Jesus is reportedly still alive, he gave up neither a temporary life nor a supposed eternal one.

In contrast, the animals sacrificed under the OT system actually died. An actual death trumps a fake one no matter who does the measuring. And let's not forget, that version of God preferred the real death of a 20 or so year old animal over the fake death of a 33 or so year old animal.


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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #38

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Miles wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 1:45 pm
Matthew 4:17
17 From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is . at hand
Miles wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 1:45 pmMark 1:15
15 And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel. [Was god's kingdom near?
Miles wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 8:00 pm
*at hand
nearby.
close in time; about to happen.

**near
2. only a short time ahead.

NOTE. Source for definitions: Dictionary of Oxford Languages



QUESTION #1 Do you want me to tell you what YOU believe he means when he said "near"/"at hand" or are you requesting me to explain what *I* believe he means when he said "near"/ "at hand"?

**NEAR
1.at or to a short distance away; nearby.
2. a short time away in the future.

**AT HAND
1. readily accessible when needed.
2. close in time; about to happen.

NOTE. Source for definitions: Dictionary of Oxford Languages

QUESTION #2 May I choose which of the two dictionary definitions is most appropriate to Jesus discourse or are you imposing the second one on me?


Please clarify as I don't like to argue strawmen (ie. I do not argue in defence of a position I do not hold) ,


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Romans 14:8

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #39

Post by Wootah »

[Replying to Sojournerofthearth in post #19]

I think rather than saying he laid his divinity aside, you might like to consider that he clothed himself, took on the nature of, humanity.
Proverbs 18:17 The one who states his case first seems right, until the other comes and examines him.

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Re: Why were none of the previous sacrifices to God sufficient?

Post #40

Post by Wootah »

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #7]

How can Jesus be a human being at all if his father is not human?
Proverbs 18:17 The one who states his case first seems right, until the other comes and examines him.

Member Notes: viewtopic.php?t=33826

"Why is everyone so quick to reason God might be petty. Now that is creating God in our own image :)."

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