4gold wrote:McCulloch wrote:So overall, you don't know. One can sin unintentionally, yes. The best part of this question as far as I am concerned is if scripture says anything about intent being considered prior to passing judgment.
Since no perfect justice sysem exists, it is impossible to postulate an answer to this. Under the American system there are mutliple loop holes for this individual: diminished mental capacity just being one of them. But I disagree, intent is needed for punishment. It is one thing to intend to run someone over, it is another thing if someone jumps out in front of you and you hit them. It is one thing if someone is trying to rape you and you push him hard away from you in which he hits his head on the corner of the end table and dies, it is another if you just push him for the heck of it. Intent in mans justice system goes to the very nature of the crime and is considered in any prosecution.
First, let's deal with the Bible:
Leviticus 4:2 - "Say to the Israelites: 'When anyone sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD's commands..."
Leviticus 4:13 - "'If the whole Israelite community sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD's commands, even though the community is unaware of the matter, they are guilty."
Leviticus 4:22 - " 'When a leader sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the commands of the LORD his God, he is guilty."
Leviticus 4:27 - " 'If a member of the community sins unintentionally and does what is forbidden in any of the LORD's commands, he is guilty."
Leviticus 5:!5 - "When a person commits a violation and sins unintentionally in regard to any of the LORD's holy things, he is to bring to the LORD as a penalty a ram from the flock, one without defect and of the proper value in silver, according to the sanctuary shekel. It is a guilt offering."
Leviticus 5:18 - "He is to bring to the priest as a guilt offering a ram from the flock, one without defect and of the proper value. In this way the priest will make atonement for him for the wrong he has committed unintentionally, and he will be forgiven."
Numbers 15:22-29 - " 'Now if you unintentionally fail to keep any of these commands the LORD gave Moses- any of the LORD's commands to you through him, from the day the LORD gave them and continuing through the generations to come- and if this is done unintentionally without the community being aware of it, then the whole community is to offer a young bull for a burnt offering as an aroma pleasing to the LORD, along with its prescribed grain offering and drink offering, and a male goat for a sin offering. The priest is to make atonement for the whole Israelite community, and they will be forgiven, for it was not intentional and they have brought to the LORD for their wrong an offering made by fire and a sin offering. The whole Israelite community and the aliens living among them will be forgiven, because all the people were involved in the unintentional wrong.
" 'But if just one person sins unintentionally, he must bring a year-old female goat for a sin offering. The priest is to make atonement before the LORD for the one who erred by sinning unintentionally, and when atonement has been made for him, he will be forgiven. One and the same law applies to everyone who sins unintentionally, whether he is a native-born Israelite or an alien. "
Numbers 35:22 - " 'But if without hostility someone suddenly shoves another or throws something at him unintentionally..."
Ezekiel 45:20 - "You are to do the same on the seventh day of the month for anyone who sins unintentionally or through ignorance; so you are to make atonement for the temple."
Seems pretty clear the Bible says you can sin unintentionally. Might just be an Old Testament concept, I'm not sure. I could only find vague references in the New Testament that one could sin beyond one's control.
I'm not sure how this debate goes from here. Is the burden of proof on you to indicate that intentions is necessary for moral culpability, or is the burden of proof upon biblicists to prove that intentions is not necessary for moral culpability?