Why was the old testament law given

[dance-above]

Why was the old testament law given and was it for all men?

[cnorman18]

[Replying to post 9 by cnorman18]

Not sure where you're getting all this. What I have said, and consistently, is that (1) in Judaism, one's "theological" beliefs are of peripheral importance, and (2) have never been standardized or uniform. Judaism has ALWAYS been pluralistic in that way, and remains so today. Therefore, change in "doctrine" -- insofar as Jews even HAVE "doctrines" -- is ongoing and always has been, and unlike Christians, we leave each other alone about such differences. Though some beliefs are forbidden to Jews, none are required, and Jews can believe, practice, or read Scripture, within those limits, as they choose.

There is no one, single way that people understand the Bible and the Jewish religion today; there was no one, single way that people understood the Bible and the Jewish religion in the past, either. It's a little odd to even speak of how Jews in the Bible understood the Bible, since it did not then exist; and the Jews of Jesus's day were very far from monolithic, with Pharisees, Sadducees, Essenes, Zealots, Sicarii, and other sects and groups all jockeying for position and influence. That can be seen in the New Testament itself. Judaism has ALWAYS been contentious and pluralistic. Therefore, of COURSE people have believed differently at different times.

For the record, I have only very rarely spoken of my own personal religious beliefs at all. I have generally spoken of the pluralism and wide spectrum of acceptable belief available to Jews of all the branches, which seems to be a very difficult concept for others to accept.

[ttruscott]

Once again, I'm not going to debate, just inform.

...

Gee, I remember someone else saying this on the belief side of things and someone from the anti-belief side saying rather loudly and with emotional contend: this is a debate site....<shrug>

[cnorman18]

[Replying to ttruscott]

(1) This subforum is for discussion, not debate.

(2) Whether or not to engage in debate is a matter of personal choice; no one here is required to debate, even if challenged.

(3) I don't debate persons who are not informed enough on a given subject to actually engage in a debate about it.

[Charming Anarchist]

[Replying to dance-above]

I personally believe it was given so that God might have mercy on us all. And that it was meant for the whole world not to just one group of people, so that we would all become guilty before God. What do you think? Please only thoughtful and educational answers.thanks

I agree. However, we need to agree on what constitutes "mercy" coming from God, specifically.

God, through His Son, kept saying: "I am the Word." and "Tell the Truth." He also told us not to swear.
From a praxeological perspective, God's mercy could be equated to people living in harmony without needing God's intervention in an unpredictable environment.

The 10 commandments are not only part of a moral code. They are also practical advice for human peaceful survival. I wrote an informal essay on this: An Objective look at the Ten Commandments That does not necessarily mean that "human peaceful survival" is an objectively universal goal for each individual human, mind you.

[McCulloch]

Why was the old testament law given and was it for all men?

I think that it is instructive that in the Genesis account, Noah was clearly aware of which animals were clean and which were unclean. This indicates to me that the dietary laws of the OT predated Moses or even Abraham. Why would a god establish a set of laws for everyone and the call them off??

[bluethread]

Why was the old testament law given and was it for all men?

I think that it is instructive that in the Genesis account, Noah was clearly aware of which animals were clean and which were unclean. This indicates to me that the dietary laws of the OT predated Moses or even Abraham. Why would a god establish a set of laws for everyone and the call them off??

Prior to the flood there is no mention of eating meat. Therefore, unclean regarding diet may not have predated the flood. However, there were sacrifices and we see that there were sacrifices that were more acceptable than others in the story of Cain and Able. Therefore, it appears that the clean and unclean designation on the ark referred to the sacrificial laws. That said, I appreciate your acknowledging the view of continuity of revelation.

Regarding why there is a written Torah. Paul tell us that it was written down, I part, because the oral version did not work so well. This is a very rough paraphrase, I'm a little pressed for time at the moment. Also Adonai was establishing a nation and the various statutes of that nation.

[cnorman18]

Why was the old testament law given and was it for all men?

I think that it is instructive that in the Genesis account, Noah was clearly aware of which animals were clean and which were unclean. This indicates to me that the dietary laws of the OT predated Moses or even Abraham....

Not unless you read Genesis as literal, actual history. If you don't, it merely indicates that the book of Genesis was written long after the dietary laws were established -- which makes a lot more sense.

[bluethread]

Why was the old testament law given and was it for all men?

I think that it is instructive that in the Genesis account, Noah was clearly aware of which animals were clean and which were unclean. This indicates to me that the dietary laws of the OT predated Moses or even Abraham....

Not unless you read Genesis as literal, actual history. If you don't, it merely indicates that the book of Genesis was written long after the dietary laws were established -- which makes a lot more sense.

Good point. Even if one takes it as an historical account, that account would have been compiled by Moshe', who would have also compiled what some call "the dietary laws". So, the story of Noach could have included Moshe's prospective.