Jehovah's Witnesses: The use of "Lord" in the NWT

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Faber
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Jehovah's Witnesses: The use of "Lord" in the NWT

Post #1

Post by Faber »

In the New World's Translation when one reads the word "Lord" in the New Testament does it refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?

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Re: Jehovah's Witnesses: The use of "Lord" in the

Post #2

Post by JehovahsWitness »

[Replying to post 1 by Faber]

That would depend on the context. The title Lord of itself can refer to YHWH, Jesus or indeed it might refer to false God (1 Cor 8:5) or even a human (1 Pet 3:6; Col 4:1). The title "Lord" (Gr. kuros/kurios) is used extensively in scripture.

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New Living Translation
"Masters (kurios) , be just and fair to your slaves. Remember that you also have a Master (kurios) --in heaven" - Col 4:1

Further reading (blue letter)
https://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don ... t_1307.cfm
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #3

Post by Faber »

In the passages you cited "Lord" is not capitalized. When one comes to a passage where it is capitalized (as in for example Colossians 3:20) how is a person supposed to know to whom it refers to in the NWT?

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Post #4

Post by JehovahsWitness »

Faber wrote: In the passages you cited "Lord" is not capitalized.
There are no capital letters in Greek or Hebrew; capitalization rest entirely at the discretion of the translator and would be used depending on the context. In the New World Translation Lord with an initial Capital is used for BOTH Jehovah and Jesus.
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #5

Post by Faber »

Since the Bible is clear on distinguishing a person (creature) from the Creator how is one supposed to be able to do that when the "Lord" (when capitalized) refers to Jehovah and Jesus?

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Post #6

Post by JehovahsWitness »

[Replying to post 5 by Faber]

The context will then be the determinator. If one reads the context it is usually clear who is being referred to. Using a bible that has not replaced the Divine Name is also helpful.

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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #7

Post by Faber »

If the context is "usually clear" then that means there are times when it is not clear.
The Bible doesn't confuse the Creator and the creature.

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Post #8

Post by JehovahsWitness »

[Replying to post 7 by Faber]

Yes, not clear doesn't mean undeterminable, simply that it may take a little more effort. The effort pays off in an accurate reading.
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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Post #9

Post by Faber »

1. If a person disagreed with the Watchtower just one time in reference to whom the "Lord" applies (The Father or the Son) would that mean the person is reading it (as in understanding it) inaccurately?
2. Since having this accurate reading is very important why doesn't the Watchtower be more specific with quite a few passages where the "Lord" appears as to whom it specifically is in reference to?

3. Does the "Lord" refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?
Acts 5:14
Acts 9:35
Acts 9:42
Acts 10:14
Acts 20:19
Romans 10:12
1 Corinthians 7:35
Ephesians 5:8
Colossians 3:20
2 Timothy 2:22
2 Timothy 2:24
2 Timothy 4:17
2 Timothy 4:18

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Post #10

Post by JehovahsWitness »

[Replying to post 9 by Faber]

2. Since having this accurate reading is very important why doesn't the Watchtower be more specific with quite a few passages where the "Lord" appears as to whom it specifically is in reference to?

Because a careful reading (which Watchtower readers are encouraged to do) of the verses themselves means the identity of the subject in said verses are self evident. The Watchtower of June 1, 1994 p. 28 gave an extensive analysis on verses where clarification might (due often to negligent translation of those that remove the Divine name from its rightful place in scripture) be helpful. That said however, the publishers of the Watchtower encourage its readership to use their own powers of discernment when reading the bible and therefore do not see the need to explain every word therein.

3. Does the "Lord" refer to the Father or to the Lord Jesus?

Generally when Luke or Paul refer to "the Lord"they are speaking about Jesus, with the exception of the following from your list: Romans 10:12 (where Paul quotes Joel 2:32), Ephesians 5:8, where Paul reference God as pronouncing children of wrath and conversely of the light, 2 Timothy 2:22 also referencing the appointment and preoccupatons of those in God's household (see verse 19) and 2 Timothy 2:24, ditto.
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"For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah" -
Romans 14:8

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