MARYS 9 ROLES IN THE BIBLE.

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Falling Light 101
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MARYS 9 ROLES IN THE BIBLE.

Post #1

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._________________

How can someone have a misconception about Mary.

When she is mentioned doing around 9 acts or things in the bible.

1. Receiving the Angels WORD and commandment TO GET MARRIED to JOSEPH......

and Then and There She heard she is pregnant and goes on to have the CHILD Jesus...

Luk 1:47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Savior.
__________

2. Running to Egypt TO FLEE from ROME ./ Herod To hide her Child as Rome murdered all the 1 st Born... of Israel
__________

3. Going to Jerusalem for PURIFICATION and sacrifice.... for her cleansing ceremony.
__________

4. Looking for Jesus, for 3 days, Finding Him in the Temple...
__________

5. At a wedding, Wanting more wine for the wedding Mary asked for WINE...
__________

6. Coming from home with her family / To VISIT Jesus WITH HER SONS and DAUGHTERS as Jesus is preaching To his disciples

{ Jesus Says That He does no t CONSIDER MARY his mother, Saying WHO ? - WHY is this My MOTHER .... - Look He says pointing to his disciples HERE IS my mother and BROTHERS and sisters ...... NOT MARY....in reality God has no mother....
__________

7. At his death FOR a moment BEFORE JESUS died He said concerning John *( Mary's real Natural Son ) - WOMAN, look at your Son..

Mary's son, took MARY - HIs mother away, in private / ALONE.

The Greek word is a word meaning SEPERATE, ALONE private.....
__________

8. Bringing Spices and looking after her sons DEAD BODY.
__________

9. At the day of Pentecost Receiving the Baptism Of the HOLY spirit......

OTHER THAN THAT... What HAVE WE MISSED...

WHAT do u have to correct, or add.. to MARYS role in Gods word ?

There is no other Mary Mother Of Jesus - in the Bible.

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Post #21

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Falling Light 101 wrote:
The Translators outright lied. Grammer does not change anything that You are aware of - or Your would have already pointed it out weeks ago.....

Your message is a lie- the Grammer that is used with it does not add truth to it.

My message is fact - The Grammer does not make it fact. The Manuscripts make it FACT... [/size]

The only choice that You are left with is to destroy the evidence.

The translators did what translators do: they translated. There is no unique translation, since words carry various meanings and cases allow us to plant different prepositions before nouns, giving different readings. The grammatical interpretation is therefore important, and changes meaning, though usually not dramatically.

My point is this. If you present yourself as an authority on translation, then it is reasonable to ask that you demonstrate enormous skill and subtlety in the way you express your objections. If you are merely reading what others have written and following their suggestions, then you are expressing somebody's opinion, which is subject to error. If you are claiming exceptional expertise in translating one would want to see evidence of your expertise, not that of other people.

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Post #22

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Many changes were made by the translators and I could take days _ Even months eXplaining them all to You - But let's take a look at just one of the many, many ways that the Anti Polygamy translators went about changing the Bible to propagate an Anti polygamy message.

Lets first look at the first eXample here in 1Co_7:2

- 1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

ok - let's look at - LET EVERY MAN HAVE HIS " OWN " WIFE

First - Please take a quick look at this GOOGLE TRANSLATION OF THE meaning of the word that the translators are claiming says " LET EVERY MAN HAVE HIS " OWN " WIFE "

HEAUTOU - ἑαυτοῦ meaning CLICK HERE www.goo.gl/D2stV4

The word is not OWN- It simply means THEMSELVES.

THEMSELVES - HEAUTOU - HEH-OW-TOO' ) PRONOUN OTHERWISE OBSOLETE AND THE GENITIVE/MEANING GENITIVE ADJ: THE OTHER persons SELF SELVES ) OUR (THINE) self (-SELVES ),

heautoú (reflexive pronoun of the 3rd person) – 1438 /heautoú ("himself, herself, itself," etc.) is the 3rd person reflexive (singular, plural) form which also functions as the reflexive for 1st and 2nd person.

It never says let Every Man Have His Own Wife.

It says - Let Men Have themselves, wives.

ok - Secondly - Let's take a quick look at this GOOGLE TRANSLATION OF THE meaning of the word - " The actual word " OWN that is commanded for a woman to have their OWN Husband.

IDIOS - ἰ�διος meaning CLICK HERE - www.goo.gl/7SPHRC

AND LET EVERY WOMAN HAVE HER OWN / private - IDIOS HUSBAND

OWN ; - IDIOS - ID'-EE-OS ( OF UNCERTAIN
AFFINITY; , ONE'S OWN; BY IMPLICATION PRIVATE OR SEPARATE: HIS ACQUAINTANCE, WHEN THEY WERE ALONE,
APART, ASIDE, DUE, HIS (OWN, PROPER, SEVERAL SEPARATE), HOME, (HER, OUR, THINE, YOUR) OWN (BUSINESS), PRIVATE
(-LY), PROPER, SEVERALLY-SEPARATE, THEIR (OWN).

The two words that you see there in Your Translations Own Wife and - Own Husband- The two words OWN and OWN are two totally different greek words and one means THEMSELVES and the other OWN is the Literal word meaning OWN / Private.

The Original Manuscripts Never Command a Man to have His Own Wife.

It simply Says in 1Co 7:2 - Let Men Have Themselves Wives.
The two words Own and Own in 1Co 7:2 are not the same Greek words.

The translators lied - there are many more LIES- I could easily Show You

1Co 7:2  Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let men have themselves HEAUTOU wives, and let every woman have her OWN IDIOS husband. 

Here in 1Co 7:2 - the two words Own wife and Own Husband. The translators did not tell You that the Own Husband is not the same Greek word as - Own Wife.

There is no grammar rule for these types of mistranslations - It is just a matter of lying. The words are applied differently in the manuscripts because the BIBLE is PRO POLYGAMY. From Genesis to Revelation the translators went through and changed everything single last thing they could change and they lied. Many other places concerning marriage, the translators did not tell You that the words in Greek would support plural marriage for even Bishops and Deacons.


Here are just a few eXamples of the word themselves / HEAUTO that is applied for the Husband.

Mat 3:9  And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham
Mat 9:3  And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth. 
Mat 12:26  And if Satan cast out Satan, he is divided against himself

Mat 14:15  .... his disciples came to him, saying, ......... go into the villages, and buy themselves victuals. 

Here are just a few eXamples of the word OWN IDIOS that is applied for the WIFE.

Mat 9:1  And he entered into a ship, and passed over, and came into his own city. 
Mat 25:14  For the kingdom of heaven is as a man traveling into a far country, who called his own servants.
Luk 2:3  And all went to be taxed, every one into his own city. 
Luk 6:41  And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother's eye, but perceivest not the beam that is in thine own eye? 
Luk 6:44  For every tree is known by his own fruit.

You see eXamples of how that the two words in 1Co 7:2 are not the same and there is no grammar rule that eXists to make a Greek word take on another definition. the WORDS ARE TWO TOTALLY DIFFERENT GREEK WORDS AND ALWAYS HAVE THE TWO DIFFERENT MEANINGS -

THE TRANSLATORS KNEW THAT YOU WOULD NOT CARE AND WOULD PREFER THE ORIGINAL MESSAGE CHANGED. THAT IS EXACTLY WHY THEY CHANGED IT. jUST FOR YOU PERSONALLY.

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Post #23

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Falling Light 101 wrote: Many changes were made by the translators and I could take days _ Even months eXplaining them all to You -


Thank you for your restraint. Much appreciated.


Falling Light 101 wrote:

Lets first look at the first eXample here in 1Co_7:2

- 1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

ok - let's look at - LET EVERY MAN HAVE HIS " OWN " WIFE

First - Please take a quick look at this GOOGLE TRANSLATION OF THE meaning of the word that the translators are claiming says " LET EVERY MAN HAVE HIS " OWN " WIFE "

HEAUTOU - ἑαυτοῦ meaning CLICK HERE www.goo.gl/D2stV4

The word is not OWN- It simply means THEMSELVES.

THEMSELVES - HEAUTOU - HEH-OW-TOO' ) PRONOUN OTHERWISE OBSOLETE AND THE GENITIVE/MEANING GENITIVE ADJ: THE OTHER persons SELF SELVES ) OUR (THINE) self (-SELVES ),

heautoú (reflexive pronoun of the 3rd person) – 1438 /heautoú ("himself, herself, itself," etc.) is the 3rd person reflexive (singular, plural) form which also functions as the reflexive for 1st and 2nd person.

It never says let Every Man Have His Own Wife.

It says - Let Men Have themselves, wives.


If indeed we are dealing with the genitive, the translation you provide is erroneous. "Let men have themselves wives" would imply a dative. The translation "of themselves" = "their own" is a better rendering.


I therefore disagree with your diagnosis, so let us agree to differ.

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The Grammar is not on Your side

Post #24

Post by Falling Light 101 »

Why would you still be trying to RENDER the verse and deliver (a verdict or judgment concerning two totally different words - ONE applied to MEN and the other Greek word applied to WOMEN.

When that they are used to SHOW Opposing POSITIONS of Men compared or opposed to women.

I am not disagreeing that the English Vocabulary poses a Dative conflict upon the Greek Language - when words such as Your OWN- and YOUR SELF- are used together in a sentence.

The MEN were SIMPLY { just } the basic subject of having them, -self (-selves), wives { selves ἑαυτοῦ heautou }

and the women were in the subject of having the commandment have their OWN PRIVATE separate: apart, set aside Husband.
{ OWN - ἰ�διος = idios }

I have found a verse that describes You - and what You are attempting to assume and the verse even has these two Greek words used in their correct translation.

Here is - 2Ti 4:3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;

The above verse uses the two GREEK WORDS in RED and it is is the correct translation and how that these two Greek words are supposed to be used.

The Authors intentionally and purposely denoted that the men were to have themselves wives AND Woman were to have their OWN, PRIVATE, SEPARATE - SINGULAR - SOLE, PRIVATE OWN husband.

because that they were PRO POLYGAMY - they did not say
LET MEN HAVE THEIR OWN WIVES and WOMEN HAVE THEIR OWN HUSBAND,

That is not when they intended to say - what they authored and why eXactly that they chose to use the TWO DIFFERENT GREEK WORD to SHOW Opposing POSITIONS.

The translators did not make this distinction clear and did not relay the important message that there are two totally meanings of two totally different Greek words in the passage.

The Authors thought it very important to use the TWO SEPARATE Greek WORDS ---- and they Chose to outright LIE - in claiming that the translation was a correct representation of the Original message. \AND IT WAS NOT CORRECT.

The translators did not apply these Non eXistant rules to the other verses where these two Greek words were used in the same verses.

In all of the other hundreds of verses in the Bible - the Translators did not INVENT SOME DATIVE CLAUSE to INVENT some alternative message.

That is all that they did- Translate an alternative, mistranslated, fraudulent message to NON-GREEK speaking people.

AGAIN The verses below in RED is the correct translation and how that these two Greek words are supposed to be used.

Joh 7:18 He that speaketh of himself seeketh his own glory: but he that seeketh his glory that sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him.

Act 20:28 Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

1Co 7:37 Nevertheless he that standeth steadfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep himself the virgin, doeth well.

Heb 7:27 Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.

1Pe 3:5 For after this manner in the old time the holy women also, who trusted in God, adorned themselves, being in subjection unto their own husbands:

Jud 1:6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation

There is no GREEK GRAMMAR RULE Called A Dative.

A DATIVE IS FOUND AS A RESULT OF THE SENTENCE - IT DOES NOT DETERMINE THE MEANING OF WORDS. To change words that are used to SHOW Opposing POSITIONS.

it eXplains the relationship of the functioning relationship of the subject to other parts of speech of the subject nouns.

A dative is simply Identifying the person to whom something belongs.


The Husbands have their wives and WIVES have their OWN SEPARATE = PRIVATE HUSBANDS.

It can follow the translated sentence with a possessive pronoun, "his", "her" themselves - possesive.

the name - TO HIM was John = HIS name - was John

A dative can also function as an adjective limiting a noun or another adjective


1Co 7:2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, men have themselves wives, and women have her own { Private } husband.

You simply have no manuscripts for your faith


And You are making things up that are not in the original Manuscripts because You are untruthful

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Post #25

Post by Falling Light 101 »



Which is it ?

Joh 20:10  Then the disciples went away again unto their own home. 

or

Or Joh 20:10  Then the disciples went away again unto their homes. 

their homes and own homes are two different greek words that are used to denote that their homes are private dwellings that they each went to their own home.

This is the type of things that the translators refused to make clear concerning the Pro-Polygamy message throughout the entire Bible.

They change things - to keep You happy and religious.

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Re: The Grammar is not on Your side

Post #26

Post by marco »

Falling Light 101 wrote:

A dative is simply Identifying the person to whom something belongs.
That is sometimes its use. I'm well aware of dative usage. There are various types of datives and the accompanying preposition, in English, is often omitted. Take the ethic dative: "make me a crown of gold." In the words you were translating the genitive was used and it was possibly wrongly translated as a dative.

As for the use of "his/her own" one would use them to distinguish between one possessor and another. Since in many foreign languages a different word is used for the reflexive, there's no need for this clarification whereas, in English, "he went to his house" is ambiguous. Very often the translator seeks to clarify an ambiguity.


I see no point in making mountains of molehills. The doctrine behind the translations is a matter of indiference to me. I am not remotely persuaded by your arguments about duplicitous translators.

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Post #27

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I ask You - if the translators were not Mis - TRANSLATING The Scriptures to suit their own personal feelings then Why is the Roman Catholic Bible translation different from and contradicting - the Protestant Translation.

Such as here in Gen 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

Gen 3:15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.

My point is - That You can tell which is which - The Catholics Re Arrange the verses to create their Catholic theology and the Protestants Change and Re Arrange it to create their Protestant theology.

The Catholic bibles went through and stripped out and removed every single last instance of the commandment forbidding to BOW DOWN to Idols and images - While the protestants correctly placed in the verses correctly that forbids to bow down to Images and Idols.

We have whole chunks of contradictions that You can’t even honestly discuss and I have pages of contradictions and errors and we can’t even get past the first step.


I was never trying to say that the Scriptures say that the disciples in the bible took themselves home .

But the Bible says that Each of the multiple disciples Each or them went to their OWN personal individual = separated homes. plural.

The Greek word OWN means PRIVATE - as it is used in other verses such as 2Pe 1:20

2Pe 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private
interpretation.

The Bible does not simply say - Don't have Yourselves an interpretation.

But the bible says do not have a private interpretation.

This is why the authors used the two separate Greek words Yourselves wives and OWN / PRIVATE Husbands.

. The Males are to have themselves their wives. And woman are to have their OWN / PRIVATE SOLE - ONLY Husbands.

The Bible is literally saying that a woman is not to have another husband but their Own Husband - And in the bible - men are to have as many wives as they wish.. it has nothing to do with the rule applied consistently to women throughout the rest of the entire Bible.

The Bible is consistent. unwavering pro Polygamy to the end.


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Post #28

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Falling Light 101 wrote:

I ask You - if the translators were not Mis - TRANSLATING The Scriptures to suit their own personal feelings then Why is the Roman Catholic Bible translation different from and contradicting - the Protestant Translation.


It would be miraculous if all translations said exactly the same thing. Those who favour polygamy will adapt verses to prove their point, and there is enough room in translation for this to happen.
Your point that translations differ is a good one. How we choose the best one - not the right one - is a matter of taste and debate. Experts disagree too. Such is life.

When you want a translation of Plato or Cicero, there are many. Some introduce the spirit of what was meant; some go for tone; some are literal, at the expense of English expression; some apply equivalent modern expressions. Worse still, if poetry is involved, the difficulties are multiplied.

The OP is about "Mary's 9 roles." This is an artificial idea where references are taken and a "role" deduced. The Church did not search for references to justify paying Mary honour; she bore Jesus and that makes her special - for some at least. She is never accorded worship, for that would be idolatry. In its Catechism the Church states clearly that worshipping idols, crosses, beads, images is wrong; Mary isn't worshipped, but honoured.

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Post #29

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You are right - Only A miracle would cause everyone - Even Satan Himself give the correct translation of God’s word to others.

In The Garden Of Eden - Satan Himself was there translating and rendering Gods word to Eve.

Satan is the author and father - of this so called ROOM TO ALLOW DISAGREEMENT with Gods word. Satan told most of the truth but He decided that by His standards - He had a little room to change Gods message.

For God - there IS NO NEED for these miracles - The Original manuscripts never needed miracles- they have stated the same eXact same message for 2000 years.

I do not favor polygamy - My dislike of Polygamy does not change what the Bible says. But others dislike of polygamy has altered their translations.

The Bible itself, sets Polygamy Marriage as acceptable to God - In that God never condemns it And He has 6000 years of Bible history to just give the word.

Polygamy regulations for Gods people commands to follow special rules, laws and stipulations in the LAW that promote polygamy.

In The Old Testament and in The New Testament - Even Yaahoshua Himself sets a polygamy eXample for Gods people to be symbolized as a spiritual polygamous marriage where all of Gods people are His bride and HE alone is the ONLY Husband of all His spiritual wives.

This is CALLED SPIRITUAL obedience and PERFECTION and it is Gods single and ONLY Plan - Any other idea outside of this SPIRITUAL POLYGAMY IDEA - is nothing but spiritual fornication and rejected by God

There is no need to adapt a verse - That is eXactly what I am not doing *_ { is adapting words }

The entire Bible is a call and a demand for Gods people to follow a polygamy marriage option system instead of divorce and it is prescribed in the Bible rules, regulations and mandates. And all other societies, all other life styles of divorce and fornicating systems that fall outside of the polygamy marriage plan - are all an abomination and sin.

only a complete lying pervert would pretend that polygamy is not ordained by God Himself.

And this is exactly what Catholics are pretending. And I do not need to choose The best adaptation Nor do I need to choose the right adaptation The facts of the message of God’s word is - all I am eXpresing. As I prove that others adapt Gods word to their own taste.

That is what the whole subject is about ------------ "Mary's 9 roles in the bible

The Roman Catholic Church did not represent the Mary OF The Bible. But I do believe that You respect and Honor Mary. But the Mary OF The Roman Catholic Church does not eXist in Gods word. Nor does the god of Roman Catholics


even in the 1Ti 3:2 , 1Ti_3:12 and Tit_1:6  verses calling for a man to have ONE WIFE - These verses do not use the Greek word meaning ONE

The Greek word is A Wife - not 1. wife. --- I Could prove even this to You. The whole bible is perfectly and specially arranged, modified coded in detail and and set up with the plan for Polygamy.

In Other words there are many, many verses calling for a woman to have onle One Husband ONLY - But never is there a single verse calling for a man to have Only One wife, - it does not eXist. it is the total opposite.

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Post #30

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[font=Arial] Hello.

If You read a little more of the actual words of The Bible, as it completes and explains the FULLY RECORDED ACTUAL EVENT, -

We find that the Bible would have stated that Jesus was Mary’s “ Only Begotten “ son. This phrase “ Only Begotten “ son is used through the Old and New Testament many times and it is very important when someone has an “ Only Begotten “ child, to make it very clear in the Bible history.

This term “ Only Begotten “ - Means --- = an only child “ Only Begotten “ son of God

Jesus is never called an “ Only Begotten “ son of Mary and the Bible clearly describes that Jesus had other Brothers and Sisters and that Mary THE MOTHER OF JESUS literally had sons and daughters

The “ First Born “ son of Mary in conjunction to the direct clause that a sexual encounter did happen between a man and woman - but there was a “ First Born “ son that prevented the sex and almost prevented the whole marriage. And until that “ First Born “ son was born - Mary did not have sex.

Until this time passed……….. It is just saying that sex happened and took place and the sexual experiences did not happen until an event happened firstly. The Bible says that Joseph did have six with Mary - But the sexual encounter was not UNTIL she had bore Her FIRST – born son.

Mat 1:25 And knew her not until she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
This Greek word “ until “ is the word G4219 πο�τε - pote / pot'-eh

Until = - Means = At what point in time: - + how long or when. = Or AS SOON OR AS LATER AS.
Such as here in - Mar 9:19 He answereth him, and saith, O faithless generation, “ how long “ shall I be with you?

It is a HOW LONG time word. That tells of events of circumstances and UNTIL lets the reader know that something is on hold UNTIL a certain time or event is complete or carried out. The sexual event happened, The Bible conveys the sexual experience, saying that Joseph Knew Mary Sexually, BUT NOT - “ UNTIL “ = “ how long “

We have other verses such as Mar 6:3
Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him. In just the next verse - Jesus replied in recognition that these were His actual very own blood relatives - Jesus literally verbally declared that these were His own family members here in the next verse. Verse 4. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honor, except in his own country, and among his own kin, and in his own house.

Also, there is - Gal 1:19 But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's brother.
Here the author makes a clear distinction between the Apostles and the Blood brother of Jesus,.
Also there is - Acts 1:13 And when they were come in, they went up into an upper room, where abode both Peter, James, John, Andrew, Philip, Thomas, Bartholomew, Matthew, James the son of Alphaeus, and Simon Zelotes, and Judas the brother of James These all continued with one accord in prayer and supplication, with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren.

as always, when the spiritual brothers “ THE APOSTLES AND DISCIPLES “ are mentioned being together in one place - the author makes make a clear distinction between the Apostles / Disciples and the MOTHER and Blood brothers of Jesus,. As separate from the other disciples….. Always. This is very clear in the Bible.
Also, there is - IN John 7 Jesus is home - at home with His brothers, His Mother / Family / in Galilee: He was hiding out and could not walk around in Judaea because the Jews there sought to kill him. In verse 3 His brothers said unto him, Depart from here, and go into Judaea so that your disciples also can see the works that You do. And verse 5 says that Jesus’s very own brothers did not even believe in him.

His own brothers are telling Him to leave His home in Galilee, and to go into Judaea and show His miracles to His disciples.
Also there is - John 2:12 "After this He went down to Capernaum, He, and His Mother,.. and His Brethren,. and His disciples: and they continued there not many days."

as always and again, the author makes make a clear distinction between the Apostles / Disciples and the MOTHER and the Blood brothers of Jesus,. As separate from the other disciples. We know that Mother Mary “ Mother of Jesus “ was at the tomb / or burial place where Jesus was buried.
As here, in - Mar 15:47 And Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Joses beheld where he was laid.
Also there is -Mark 15:40…There were women looking afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, And Mary the mother of James and of Joses, and Salome

Here Mary is identified as the "Mother" of James, and Joses, AND Salome;- her daughter.

The Bible leads one to understand that there was a sexual experience between Mary and Joseph and that Mary had other sons and daughters. It deliberately and consciously makes a clear distinction between the brothers of Jesus the other children of His mother - Mary the mother of James and of Joses, and Salome the brothers and sister of Jesus. Catholics ask the question such as “ Why Is Joseph no longer around and mentioned and no longer with Mary. But the reason is because Jesus whole family were not around Jesus for most of His ministry because He was creating problems by debating with the authorities in Israel. All of the Family could only survive by limiting their contact time with Jesus - especially Joseph – a businessman who was a carpenter, trying to make a living.

Remember that -- Jesus refuses to even address Mary as " Mother " - His " Mother and Brother " are nothing but WOMAN and SON.

I simply can not pretend to be unable to wrap my head around the fact that in John 19:27 - there is a huge contradiction between The Catholic Translation and The King James Translation.

The Roman Catholic Translators purposefully and deliberately, MISTRANSLATED, the verse to conform with their Catholic doctrine about Mother Mary.
John 19:27 - is mistranslated in the Roman Catholic Translation, however, it is correctly translated in the King James .

This is a huge contradiction between the two translation and one of them or both are lying or adding more to the Bible than what the manuscripts say - please remember, John 19:26 When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: Woman, behold thy son. 27 After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to privacy.
The Roman Catholic translation says that the disciple took Mary to His “ Home � - but this, not the Greek word for “ Home � - The Greek word is - 2398 - / idios / id'-ee-os “ OWN “ meaning = Private or Separate: Alone, Apart, Aside, Your) Own (business), private (-ly).

John 19:27 says that the disciple took Mary away, alone, in private, alone and separated Her from Her dying son.

The Greek word 2398 - / idios / id'-ee-os “ OWN “ has nothing to do with “ HOME “
The Greek word for “ OWN / ALONE “ MEANING - = Pertaining to one’s own personal self - that is, one's own; MEANING = Private or Separate: Alone, Apart, Aside, Your) Own (business), private (-ly).
This Greek word occurs a total 113 times in the Original Manuscripts and it always means the same exact meaning. Here is how the Greek word “ OWN / ALONE “ - idios / id'-ee-os is used in the same manner - in every single last verse in the entire Bible.

Just like these following nine verses. This is nine verses out of * 113 - And never does this word literally mean someone’s house.
Mar 7:33 And he took him idios / aside / alone from the multitude.
Mat 9:1 And he entered into a ship, and passed over, and came into his idios / own city.
Mat 14:13 When Jesus heard of it, he departed.......into a desert place idios / apart / aside / alone
Mat 14:23 { Jesus } ........ went up into a mountain idios / apart / aside / alone to pray:
Mat 17:1 Jesus took Peter, James, and John his brother, up into an high mountain idios /apart / aside / alone
Mat 17:19 Then came the disciples to Jesus idios / apart / aside / alone
Mat 20:17 And Jesus going up to Jerusalem took the twelve disciples apart / aside / alone
Mat 24:3 on the Mount Olives, the disciples came unto Jesuus idios / privately / apart / aside / alone
Mar 6:32 And they departed into a desert place by ship idios /privately / apart / aside / alone

We see that the disciple took Mary away, alone, in privacy from the cross. He never took Her home in the Bible - This is another Roman Catholic mythconception that was changed in the Catholic Translation that contradicts the King James and also the original manuscripts.

Also another mistranslated verse, here in - 1Co_7:2 The woman were to have their own idios / separate / individual / private / apart / aside / alone own husbands. And men have {{ heautou “ themselves “ }} wives. Thy, our, your) -self (-selves), etc.: - herself himself, (thine) own (-selves), (-selves), they, thyself, you, your selves, -selves). Plural Wives.

We see how that Catholics and Muslims and most Trinitarians deceive the readers and refuse to go beyond the single one step of the Trinitarian Translators who were more interested in following the Message of other such as The Vatican Primates in Rome and other various lawyers of their day who are called Church Fathers - These types of fable - ish- fishy – wishy washy “ YEARS AFTER THE FACT “ - quack / mythconception stories about Mary preaching and remaining a virgin and ascending up to heaven in a living bodily form - These types of stories are all made up and propagated and transmitted by people such as the Popes who go about kissing other perverted books such as the Quran that is full of stories similar to the story that You present concerning Mary’s later life.

The Quran is a book of fables and perversions as the original Bible characters are lifted, pirated and stolen and bootlegged right out of the Bible. And this is all that these stories are all about. Fake…. .. Inventions. The truth is, we do not know anything about what happened to Joseph and Mary – The Authors of The Bible absolutely have nothing - ……… NO INFORMATION - is given about Mary. She had no importance in the Ministry and was never even Mentioned anywhere in Gods word.

We know that in the Bible - Jesus would never, ever even consider, out right calling John or anyone as His physical brother. And we know that Jesus would never call Mary His physical mother. He treated His relationship exactly as it was with His adopted father “ Joseph “

He explains all of this in His own words - saying “ Who is my mother, who is my brother. � Mat 12:50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother. Even when Mary was sorrowing frantically, worriedly frightened and desperately in turmoil as she searched for Jesus for three whole days. Jesus did not say “ Hey Mom, let’s go preaching together ! “ No, Jesus blew her off and told her that His business of preaching and witnessing was not her business. Remember = Luk 2:48 and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing in torment and pain. { torment = / odunaō }
49 And he said unto them, How is it that ye sought me? see ye not that I must be about my Father's business?

Jesus had no interest in Mary’s sorrow / torment and pain concerning her three day agonizing panic search and panic attacks and horrible fears concerning His whereabouts. The Angel had already explained what Jesus’s mission and purpose on earth was and Mary knew that He was not Her real son, born from conception. - Jesus was rebuking that false, ignorant deceptive, lying perverted Roman Catholic and Islamic spirit that Mary was bringing to Him, just like, He rebuked St. Peter. Saying, My business is not to be concerned about Your ideas- But to do the will of My father.

Outside of this - all we have is imagination. All we have are the doodling, scribbling, scrawling and the squiggles of other men. The Church Fathers.
Mat 23:9 And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven. [/font][/b]

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