The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

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Davidjayjordan
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The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #1

Post by Davidjayjordan »

Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city. Church people like to say that it was because it was given over to homosexuality, but lets delve deeper into direct 'prophecy' from Ezekiel and others what really happened there.

Usually I would stay away from this topic as it usually gets you kicked out of a forum, but seeing it has been discussed HERE previously without problems, allow me to post, something new, I for one just noticed. The men of Sodom were heterosexuals simply and honestly because the frightened Lot, actually offered them his daughters rather than sending out the angelic men to them. It didn't work, but obviously as a long time citizen of Sodom, Lot figured trying to seduce these vile men away from the angels was worth a shot... as they were heterosexuals.

Look up the verse and verses and do note this ploy by Lot.

And then we shall progress with direct prophecy and other historical texts that show that this vile evil mob at Lots door, was not into sex for pleasure, but was into abusing foreigners and strangers and even killing them. For them, their anal sex was a means of showing their superiority over them and making them submissive to them. This all the Mid East tended to do, when they conquered a foreign army. Strip them and have anal sex with them to punish and abuse and even kill them..

Even seen in our era, as they did this to Gaddafi after his capture, even as he walked back to the jail with his captors.

And so it appears that dirty anal sex was not the sin of Sodom, but the way they treated their neighbors and the way they treated strangers. The Lord said, Love your neighbors and this horrific vile city was killing them when they entered their so called rich and progressive city.

Lets see what the Lord says about Sodom in a direct word for word prophecy in Ezekiel...

Ezekiel
16:49-50 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister SODOM, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her
and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed
abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good.

*******

True and righteous are your judgments Lord, as pride, fulness of bread, materialism, wealth, idleness, and treating your neighbors like hell, including killing them is a horrible sin.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #31

Post by catnip »

mitty wrote:
catnip wrote:
Davidjayjordan wrote: Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city. Church people like to say that it was because it was given over to homosexuality, but lets delve deeper into direct 'prophecy' from Ezekiel and others what really happened there.

Usually I would stay away from this topic as it usually gets you kicked out of a forum, but seeing it has been discussed HERE previously without problems, allow me to post, something new, I for one just noticed. The men of Sodom were heterosexuals simply and honestly because the frightened Lot, actually offered them his daughters rather than sending out the angelic men to them. It didn't work, but obviously as a long time citizen of Sodom, Lot figured trying to seduce these vile men away from the angels was worth a shot... as they were heterosexuals.

Look up the verse and verses and do note this ploy by Lot.

And then we shall progress with direct prophecy and other historical texts that show that this vile evil mob at Lots door, was not into sex for pleasure, but was into abusing foreigners and strangers and even killing them. For them, their anal sex was a means of showing their superiority over them and making them submissive to them. This all the Mid East tended to do, when they conquered a foreign army. Strip them and have anal sex with them to punish and abuse and even kill them..

Even seen in our era, as they did this to Gaddafi after his capture, even as he walked back to the jail with his captors.

And so it appears that dirty anal sex was not the sin of Sodom, but the way they treated their neighbors and the way they treated strangers. The Lord said, Love your neighbors and this horrific vile city was killing them when they entered their so called rich and progressive city.

Lets see what the Lord says about Sodom in a direct word for word prophecy in Ezekiel...

Ezekiel
16:49-50 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister SODOM, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her
and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed
abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good.

*******

True and righteous are your judgments Lord, as pride, fulness of bread, materialism, wealth, idleness, and treating your neighbors like hell, including killing them is a horrible sin.
Just to be clear: The men of Sodom were demanding that the angels be sent out so they could "know them", they intended to force themselves on innocents who didn't want sex. This is not either homosexuality or heterosexuality, at least not normally. It is RAPE. Plain and simple. And rape is, as the above poster claimed, not for the purpose of pleasure, but to diminish the other person and to dominate. And that is inarguable! Lest the angels themselves went out an pimped themselves forcing Lot to come out and drag them behind closed doors. Which he didn't. (I do realize that some of you fantasize that homosexuals are going to rape you, given a chance, but rest assured, it is merely a sexual fantasy. You might want to examine why you cook up this nonsense.)

And finally, and I forget exactly where but I could probably find it on the net somewhere, the OT refers back to Sodom and specifically states that the reason for their sin was lack of hospitality. They did not welcome the strangers and give them their best, but attempted to dominate them.
The story doesn't say that the men women and children ("all the people") wanted to have sex with two strangers. It simply says that all the people wanted to know them, presumably to find out what they were up to and why they were in their town[[/u]
I wish it was that innocent. The biblical narrative uses the euphemism, "to know them" as a reference to sex. So, it could be taken the innocent way you wish to take it, but surely that would not cause God to destroy Sodom. It wouldn't be a sin! There would be no reason for Lot to offer his daughters, either.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #32

Post by mitty »

catnip wrote:
mitty wrote:
catnip wrote:
Davidjayjordan wrote: Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city. Church people like to say that it was because it was given over to homosexuality, but lets delve deeper into direct 'prophecy' from Ezekiel and others what really happened there.

Usually I would stay away from this topic as it usually gets you kicked out of a forum, but seeing it has been discussed HERE previously without problems, allow me to post, something new, I for one just noticed. The men of Sodom were heterosexuals simply and honestly because the frightened Lot, actually offered them his daughters rather than sending out the angelic men to them. It didn't work, but obviously as a long time citizen of Sodom, Lot figured trying to seduce these vile men away from the angels was worth a shot... as they were heterosexuals.

Look up the verse and verses and do note this ploy by Lot.

And then we shall progress with direct prophecy and other historical texts that show that this vile evil mob at Lots door, was not into sex for pleasure, but was into abusing foreigners and strangers and even killing them. For them, their anal sex was a means of showing their superiority over them and making them submissive to them. This all the Mid East tended to do, when they conquered a foreign army. Strip them and have anal sex with them to punish and abuse and even kill them..

Even seen in our era, as they did this to Gaddafi after his capture, even as he walked back to the jail with his captors.

And so it appears that dirty anal sex was not the sin of Sodom, but the way they treated their neighbors and the way they treated strangers. The Lord said, Love your neighbors and this horrific vile city was killing them when they entered their so called rich and progressive city.

Lets see what the Lord says about Sodom in a direct word for word prophecy in Ezekiel...

Ezekiel
16:49-50 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister SODOM, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her
and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed
abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good.

*******

True and righteous are your judgments Lord, as pride, fulness of bread, materialism, wealth, idleness, and treating your neighbors like hell, including killing them is a horrible sin.
Just to be clear: The men of Sodom were demanding that the angels be sent out so they could "know them", they intended to force themselves on innocents who didn't want sex. This is not either homosexuality or heterosexuality, at least not normally. It is RAPE. Plain and simple. And rape is, as the above poster claimed, not for the purpose of pleasure, but to diminish the other person and to dominate. And that is inarguable! Lest the angels themselves went out an pimped themselves forcing Lot to come out and drag them behind closed doors. Which he didn't. (I do realize that some of you fantasize that homosexuals are going to rape you, given a chance, but rest assured, it is merely a sexual fantasy. You might want to examine why you cook up this nonsense.)

And finally, and I forget exactly where but I could probably find it on the net somewhere, the OT refers back to Sodom and specifically states that the reason for their sin was lack of hospitality. They did not welcome the strangers and give them their best, but attempted to dominate them.
The story doesn't say that the men women and children ("all the people") wanted to have sex with two strangers. It simply says that all the people wanted to know them, presumably to find out what they were up to and why they were in their town[[/u]
I wish it was that innocent. The biblical narrative uses the euphemism, "to know them" as a reference to sex. So, it could be taken the innocent way you wish to take it, but surely that would not cause God to destroy Sodom. It wouldn't be a sin! There would be no reason for Lot to offer his daughters, either.
Nah. The story was about inhospitality (Matt 11:24 10:14-15) by all the people (Gen 18:32) and wasn't about the men & women & children lining up to have their turn with a couple of strangers, and given that the incestuous bad Lot was already outside the house and would have been ready to satisfy the sexual urges of the men & women & children. The word "know" when used to refer to sexual activity is about an intimate loving relationship, and not about violent sexual assaults by men & women & children.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #33

Post by catnip »

mitty wrote:
catnip wrote:
mitty wrote:
catnip wrote:
Davidjayjordan wrote: Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city. Church people like to say that it was because it was given over to homosexuality, but lets delve deeper into direct 'prophecy' from Ezekiel and others what really happened there.

Usually I would stay away from this topic as it usually gets you kicked out of a forum, but seeing it has been discussed HERE previously without problems, allow me to post, something new, I for one just noticed. The men of Sodom were heterosexuals simply and honestly because the frightened Lot, actually offered them his daughters rather than sending out the angelic men to them. It didn't work, but obviously as a long time citizen of Sodom, Lot figured trying to seduce these vile men away from the angels was worth a shot... as they were heterosexuals.

Look up the verse and verses and do note this ploy by Lot.

And then we shall progress with direct prophecy and other historical texts that show that this vile evil mob at Lots door, was not into sex for pleasure, but was into abusing foreigners and strangers and even killing them. For them, their anal sex was a means of showing their superiority over them and making them submissive to them. This all the Mid East tended to do, when they conquered a foreign army. Strip them and have anal sex with them to punish and abuse and even kill them..

Even seen in our era, as they did this to Gaddafi after his capture, even as he walked back to the jail with his captors.

And so it appears that dirty anal sex was not the sin of Sodom, but the way they treated their neighbors and the way they treated strangers. The Lord said, Love your neighbors and this horrific vile city was killing them when they entered their so called rich and progressive city.

Lets see what the Lord says about Sodom in a direct word for word prophecy in Ezekiel...

Ezekiel
16:49-50 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister SODOM, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her
and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed
abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good.

*******

True and righteous are your judgments Lord, as pride, fulness of bread, materialism, wealth, idleness, and treating your neighbors like hell, including killing them is a horrible sin.
Just to be clear: The men of Sodom were demanding that the angels be sent out so they could "know them", they intended to force themselves on innocents who didn't want sex. This is not either homosexuality or heterosexuality, at least not normally. It is RAPE. Plain and simple. And rape is, as the above poster claimed, not for the purpose of pleasure, but to diminish the other person and to dominate. And that is inarguable! Lest the angels themselves went out an pimped themselves forcing Lot to come out and drag them behind closed doors. Which he didn't. (I do realize that some of you fantasize that homosexuals are going to rape you, given a chance, but rest assured, it is merely a sexual fantasy. You might want to examine why you cook up this nonsense.)

And finally, and I forget exactly where but I could probably find it on the net somewhere, the OT refers back to Sodom and specifically states that the reason for their sin was lack of hospitality. They did not welcome the strangers and give them their best, but attempted to dominate them.
The story doesn't say that the men women and children ("all the people") wanted to have sex with two strangers. It simply says that all the people wanted to know them, presumably to find out what they were up to and why they were in their town[[/u]
I wish it was that innocent. The biblical narrative uses the euphemism, "to know them" as a reference to sex. So, it could be taken the innocent way you wish to take it, but surely that would not cause God to destroy Sodom. It wouldn't be a sin! There would be no reason for Lot to offer his daughters, either.
Nah. The story was about inhospitality (Matt 11:24 10:14-15) by all the people (Gen 18:32) and wasn't about the men & women & children lining up to have their turn with a couple of strangers, and given that the incestuous bad Lot was already outside the house and would have been ready to satisfy the sexual urges of the men & women & children. The word "know" when used to refer to sexual activity is about an intimate loving relationship, and not about violent sexual assaults by men & women & children.
Okay! I will go with that. It still seems to leave something to be explained, but I am not much of a defender of the OT. Just so long as it doesn't accuse the innocent of something that they are not prone to do.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #34

Post by mitty »

mitty wrote:
catnip wrote:
mitty wrote:
catnip wrote:
Davidjayjordan wrote: Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city. Church people like to say that it was because it was given over to homosexuality, but lets delve deeper into direct 'prophecy' from Ezekiel and others what really happened there.

Usually I would stay away from this topic as it usually gets you kicked out of a forum, but seeing it has been discussed HERE previously without problems, allow me to post, something new, I for one just noticed. The men of Sodom were heterosexuals simply and honestly because the frightened Lot, actually offered them his daughters rather than sending out the angelic men to them. It didn't work, but obviously as a long time citizen of Sodom, Lot figured trying to seduce these vile men away from the angels was worth a shot... as they were heterosexuals.

Look up the verse and verses and do note this ploy by Lot.

And then we shall progress with direct prophecy and other historical texts that show that this vile evil mob at Lots door, was not into sex for pleasure, but was into abusing foreigners and strangers and even killing them. For them, their anal sex was a means of showing their superiority over them and making them submissive to them. This all the Mid East tended to do, when they conquered a foreign army. Strip them and have anal sex with them to punish and abuse and even kill them..

Even seen in our era, as they did this to Gaddafi after his capture, even as he walked back to the jail with his captors.

And so it appears that dirty anal sex was not the sin of Sodom, but the way they treated their neighbors and the way they treated strangers. The Lord said, Love your neighbors and this horrific vile city was killing them when they entered their so called rich and progressive city.

Lets see what the Lord says about Sodom in a direct word for word prophecy in Ezekiel...

Ezekiel
16:49-50 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister SODOM, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her
and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed
abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good.

*******

True and righteous are your judgments Lord, as pride, fulness of bread, materialism, wealth, idleness, and treating your neighbors like hell, including killing them is a horrible sin.
Just to be clear: The men of Sodom were demanding that the angels be sent out so they could "know them", they intended to force themselves on innocents who didn't want sex. This is not either homosexuality or heterosexuality, at least not normally. It is RAPE. Plain and simple. And rape is, as the above poster claimed, not for the purpose of pleasure, but to diminish the other person and to dominate. And that is inarguable! Lest the angels themselves went out an pimped themselves forcing Lot to come out and drag them behind closed doors. Which he didn't. (I do realize that some of you fantasize that homosexuals are going to rape you, given a chance, but rest assured, it is merely a sexual fantasy. You might want to examine why you cook up this nonsense.)

And finally, and I forget exactly where but I could probably find it on the net somewhere, the OT refers back to Sodom and specifically states that the reason for their sin was lack of hospitality. They did not welcome the strangers and give them their best, but attempted to dominate them.
The story doesn't say that the men women and children ("all the people") wanted to have sex with two strangers. It simply says that all the people wanted to know them, presumably to find out what they were up to and why they were in their town[[/u]
I wish it was that innocent. The biblical narrative uses the euphemism, "to know them" as a reference to sex. So, it could be taken the innocent way you wish to take it, but surely that would not cause God to destroy Sodom. It wouldn't be a sin! There would be no reason for Lot to offer his daughters, either.
Nah. The story was about inhospitality (Matt 11:24 10:14-15) by all the people (Gen 18:32) and wasn't about the men & women & children lining up to have their turn with a couple of strangers, and given that the incestuous bad Lot was already outside the house and would have been ready to satisfy the sexual urges of the men & women & children. The word "know" when used to refer to sexual activity is about an intimate loving relationship, and not about violent sexual assaults by men & women & children.
And even if a volcanic eruption killed the men, women & children of Sodom for wanting to have sex with a couple of strangers instead of with Lot, what naughty things did the men, women and children of Gomorrah do?

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #35

Post by Yahu »

Davidjayjordan wrote: Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city.
Im afraid you totally missed the point of the story.

Homosexuality wasn't the problem. They wanted sex with angels. The didn't want them for themselves but for their wives and daughters to produce giants and mighty men under their control.

The 'four kings' had just prior to this subjugated the land and killed off all the rephaim in the land. They had lost all their giants and mighty men that were descent from the four angels bound at the Euphrates. They wanted a fresh installment of angelic DNA into their bloodlines. The Canaanite bloodline had nephilim corruption.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #36

Post by catnip »

Yahu wrote:
Davidjayjordan wrote: Lets debate the condition of Sodom and why the Lord destroyed the whole city.
Im afraid you totally missed the point of the story.

Homosexuality wasn't the problem. They wanted sex with angels. The didn't want them for themselves but for their wives and daughters to produce giants and mighty men under their control.

The 'four kings' had just prior to this subjugated the land and killed off all the rephaim in the land. They had lost all their giants and mighty men that were descent from the four angels bound at the Euphrates. They wanted a fresh installment of angelic DNA into their bloodlines. The Canaanite bloodline had nephilim corruption.
I must say! None of this is biblical. lol I mean, it certainly is not in the story or even remotely hinted at.

Not that I mind, as long as it isn't used as a clobber verse to condemn people.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #37

Post by bluethread »

catnip wrote:
bluethread wrote:
social
catnip wrote:
There should be no confusion between human sexuality and rape.


There should be no confusion between business and theft either. However, if one is judging business practices, theft may not be the only factor involved. One does not have to be a woman to see rape as a bad thing. If one is just making a judgment regarding a specific incident, it might be possible to isolate a singular cause. However, if we are talking about a judgment regarding a social dynamic, a singular cause is rarely identifiable. I have no doubt that rape was a motivation among those in the crowd. However, it does not diminish the nature of rape to acknowledge that there are also other things at play here.


Pedophiles are historically heterosexuals. At the time, in war, it was used by victors as the ultimate humiliation of their conquered foe, an order given to the troops. In prisons here in the U.S. today, rape is a threat used by other prisoners to control other prisoners. There is no reason whatsoever to read into the narrative a bias against homosexuals historically or otherwise.

What I see here is people misapplying the scriptures to support their own agendas.

Rape is a horror!

I'm not going to bother to say more. The fact that they were demanding that the angels be sent out so they could know them is sufficient. It is exactly what the narrative says and nothing else.

I am a total snob against those who read things into the scriptures that are not there. Read the plain sense of the passage, exactly the words that are written and think about what it says exactly, rid yourself of preconceived notions, they are misleading you. (yes, I repeated the word exactly in order to stress it) You were the one that posted its later reference and the sin of Sodom.

I am very concerned that now, in the U.S., rape is a growing problem. T-shirts were even sold by Amazon promoting rape. Gang rape has been in the news too much in recent years. Too bad this passage can't be used against rape--as it is about rape! And whether heterosexuals rape other men or not--and we know they do--is being brushed aside to build hate against people for something they are no more prone to do than their heterosexual counterparts.


I have not "brushed away" rape. It is you who is brushing away the passage that is used to argue that it was the sin of being inhospitable, by those who justify homosexual behavior. Have you corrected them on that? Have you been just as insistent in telling them that it is not about being inhospitable, but is simply about rape? In fact, if you are "a total snob against those who read things into the scriptures that are not there", why are you bringing up rape. That is not among the words that are "exactly" written. One must look at the context and compare it to other contexts with which one is familiar, just as you have done in placing it in the context of modern rape research. So, it appears, by your standard, your bias has caused you to misapplying the scriptures to support their own agenda.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #38

Post by catnip »

bluethread wrote:
catnip wrote:
bluethread wrote:
social
catnip wrote:
There should be no confusion between human sexuality and rape.


There should be no confusion between business and theft either. However, if one is judging business practices, theft may not be the only factor involved. One does not have to be a woman to see rape as a bad thing. If one is just making a judgment regarding a specific incident, it might be possible to isolate a singular cause. However, if we are talking about a judgment regarding a social dynamic, a singular cause is rarely identifiable. I have no doubt that rape was a motivation among those in the crowd. However, it does not diminish the nature of rape to acknowledge that there are also other things at play here.


Pedophiles are historically heterosexuals. At the time, in war, it was used by victors as the ultimate humiliation of their conquered foe, an order given to the troops. In prisons here in the U.S. today, rape is a threat used by other prisoners to control other prisoners. There is no reason whatsoever to read into the narrative a bias against homosexuals historically or otherwise.

What I see here is people misapplying the scriptures to support their own agendas.

Rape is a horror!

I'm not going to bother to say more. The fact that they were demanding that the angels be sent out so they could know them is sufficient. It is exactly what the narrative says and nothing else.

I am a total snob against those who read things into the scriptures that are not there. Read the plain sense of the passage, exactly the words that are written and think about what it says exactly, rid yourself of preconceived notions, they are misleading you. (yes, I repeated the word exactly in order to stress it) You were the one that posted its later reference and the sin of Sodom.

I am very concerned that now, in the U.S., rape is a growing problem. T-shirts were even sold by Amazon promoting rape. Gang rape has been in the news too much in recent years. Too bad this passage can't be used against rape--as it is about rape! And whether heterosexuals rape other men or not--and we know they do--is being brushed aside to build hate against people for something they are no more prone to do than their heterosexual counterparts.


I have not "brushed away" rape. It is you who is brushing away the passage that is used to argue that it was the sin of being inhospitable, by those who justify homosexual behavior. Have you corrected them on that? Have you been just as insistent in telling them that it is not about being inhospitable, but is simply about rape? In fact, if you are "a total snob against those who read things into the scriptures that are not there", why are you bringing up rape. That is not among the words that are "exactly" written. One must look at the context and compare it to other contexts with which one is familiar, just as you have done in placing it in the context of modern rape research. So, it appears, by your standard, your bias has caused you to misapplying the scriptures to support their own agenda.
Not me! I was the one who brought up the reference that claimed their sin was inhospitality--and you provided the chapter and verse because I couldn't remember where it was.

And I also already explained why the sexual sin would be rape. Because the people were pounding on the door demanding that the angels be sent out to them so they could "know them".

Hmmmm . . . maybe review the conversation?

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #39

Post by Yahu »

catnip wrote:
I must say! None of this is biblical. lol I mean, it certainly is not in the story or even remotely hinted at.

Not that I mind, as long as it isn't used as a clobber verse to condemn people.
Many bible stories just give limited detail of the events. It helps to be familiar with the Canaanite religion practiced in the area. When you understand that religion, it is obvious. And yes, much of those religious practices are referenced all over the OT.

For example, the story of the uncovering of Noah's nakedness isn't really explained in scripture. You have to go to non-scriptural sources to determine what actually happened. Canaan got Noah drunk then castrated Noah. Ham found Noah told his brothers who helped Noah then Noah cursed Canaan, not Ham. Yah had commanded Noah to be fruitful and multiply personally. His wife, Na'amah wasn't conceiving so Noah was going to start taking on additional wives from among his granddaughters. Canaan objected to his grandfather taking the younger women for himself so he got Noah drunk and castrated him to put a stop to it.

Now, not that Im anyway a supporter of homosexual activity but no where in scripture does it state the sin of Sodom was Sodomy. We automatically make that assumption because the word Sodomy in our language was derived from the 'sin of Soddom' yet the Hebrew word translated as sodomy had NOTHING to do with the city of Sodom.

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Re: The vile men of Sodom were heterosexuals and not gays

Post #40

Post by mitty »

Yahu wrote:
catnip wrote:
I must say! None of this is biblical. lol I mean, it certainly is not in the story or even remotely hinted at.

Not that I mind, as long as it isn't used as a clobber verse to condemn people.
Many bible stories just give limited detail of the events. It helps to be familiar with the Canaanite religion practiced in the area. When you understand that religion, it is obvious. And yes, much of those religious practices are referenced all over the OT.

For example, the story of the uncovering of Noah's nakedness isn't really explained in scripture. You have to go to non-scriptural sources to determine what actually happened. Canaan got Noah drunk then castrated Noah. Ham found Noah told his brothers who helped Noah then Noah cursed Canaan, not Ham. Yah had commanded Noah to be fruitful and multiply personally. His wife, Na'amah wasn't conceiving so Noah was going to start taking on additional wives from among his granddaughters. Canaan objected to his grandfather taking the younger women for himself so he got Noah drunk and castrated him to put a stop to it.

Now, not that Im anyway a supporter of homosexual activity but no where in scripture does it state the sin of Sodom was Sodomy. We automatically make that assumption because the word Sodomy in our language was derived from the 'sin of Soddom' yet the Hebrew word translated as sodomy had NOTHING to do with the city of Sodom.
And what was the sin of Gomorrah?

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