I do not find any, but others do.
Some say David and Jonathan were in love, had sex, and were even married.
They also cite Ruth and Naomi as being similar.
How do you read David and Jonathan, and Ruth and Naomi?
Are there any gay relationships in the Bible?
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Re: Are there any gay relationships in the Bible?
Post #21Hi Tam!
We are getting side tracked here, so I thought I'd respond to you on my thread here:
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 232#786232
We are getting side tracked here, so I thought I'd respond to you on my thread here:
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 232#786232
Society and its morals evolve and will continue to evolve. The bible however remains the same and just requires more and more apologetics and claims of "metaphors" and "symbolism" to justify it.
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There is much about this world that is mind boggling and impressive, but I see no need whatsoever to put it down to magical super powered beings.
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Post #22
There are other alternatives. 1) Widowers. 2) Married, but wive not mentioned. 3) divorced.Strider324 wrote: Since historically it was extremely rare for men in their 30's to be single, I would say there is ample evidence that Jesus and his disciples were likely gay.
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Post #23
Goat wrote:There are other alternatives. 1) Widowers. 2) Married, but wive not mentioned. 3) divorced.Strider324 wrote: Since historically it was extremely rare for men in their 30's to be single, I would say there is ample evidence that Jesus and his disciples were likely gay.
Sure, but a bunch of widowers at 30 seems a stretch (unless they all killed their wives for complaining about them being out all the time and ignoring the kids). And divorce? How common was divorce in 1st century Judaism?
Not mentioning the irrelevant wives seems the most parsimonious explanation of the 3. But being gay is certainly a possibility. If one looks at the large sub-culture of gays historically in the RCC, it becomes even more of one.
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Post #24
Who said they were ALL widowers??? It could be a combination of several. Since not being married was rare, and for that matter, many marriages were arranged, with a high rate of mortality among women giving birth, there would be likely to be widowers at age 30.Strider324 wrote:Goat wrote:There are other alternatives. 1) Widowers. 2) Married, but wive not mentioned. 3) divorced.Strider324 wrote: Since historically it was extremely rare for men in their 30's to be single, I would say there is ample evidence that Jesus and his disciples were likely gay.
Sure, but a bunch of widowers at 30 seems a stretch (unless they all killed their wives for complaining about them being out all the time and ignoring the kids). And divorce? How common was divorce in 1st century Judaism?
Not mentioning the irrelevant wives seems the most parsimonious explanation of the 3. But being gay is certainly a possibility. If one looks at the large sub-culture of gays historically in the RCC, it becomes even more of one.
“What do you think science is? There is nothing magical about science. It is simply a systematic way for carefully and thoroughly observing nature and using consistent logic to evaluate results. So which part of that exactly do you disagree with? Do you disagree with being thorough? Using careful observation? Being systematic? Or using consistent logic?�
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Post #25
I didn't say ALL widowers. Yes, it could be a combination - or they could have been gay. We'll never know.Goat wrote:Who said they were ALL widowers??? It could be a combination of several. Since not being married was rare, and for that matter, many marriages were arranged, with a high rate of mortality among women giving birth, there would be likely to be widowers at age 30.Strider324 wrote:Goat wrote:There are other alternatives. 1) Widowers. 2) Married, but wive not mentioned. 3) divorced.Strider324 wrote: Since historically it was extremely rare for men in their 30's to be single, I would say there is ample evidence that Jesus and his disciples were likely gay.
Sure, but a bunch of widowers at 30 seems a stretch (unless they all killed their wives for complaining about them being out all the time and ignoring the kids). And divorce? How common was divorce in 1st century Judaism?
Not mentioning the irrelevant wives seems the most parsimonious explanation of the 3. But being gay is certainly a possibility. If one looks at the large sub-culture of gays historically in the RCC, it becomes even more of one.
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Post #26
I agree that the OT never shies away from saying “M. X was sleeping with Mlle. Y� so the absence of mention homosexual relationships suggests that none of the relationships mentioned in the OT were that type. It just seems highly unlikely (if not a desperate modern attempt to justify these relationships.)
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Post #27
I would agree, in fact that's a point I made earlier a book that is so brutally honest on matters of sexual sins and deviations is hardly going to neglect to mention David and Jonathan having a sexual relationship if that were the case. After all it mentions David seducing another man's wife and then having the man killed to cover over his crime; his son raping his daughter, his other son having sex with David's own wives (secondary wives/conclubines)... all actions that were totally illegal but recorded with a surprising frankness.JLB32168 wrote: I agree that the OT never shies away from saying “M. X was sleeping with Mlle. Y� so the absence of mention homosexual relationships suggests that none of the relationships mentioned in the OT were that type. It just seems highly unlikely (if not a desperate modern attempt to justify these relationships.)
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Post #28
Strider324 wrote:Goat wrote:Just a second, weren't you one of those people who insisted up and down that the judgement of Sodom had nothing to do with homosexuality? How can one be so certain about that not being the case and expect this speculative argument be given credence?Strider324 wrote:
I didn't say ALL widowers. Yes, it could be a combination - or they could have been gay. We'll never know.
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Post #29
bluethread wrote:Strider324 wrote:I can be certain because I read and understood the text and context regarding Sodom. So, I'm not sure what you're babbling about here. Understanding that the sin of Sodom described was one of being inhospitable has nothing to do with my right to speculate about the sexual preferences of anyone in the bible. Just by what we know of the prevalence of homosexuality in our species, it's likely at least 1 of the 12 disciples was Gay. That said, I couldn't care less whether anyone gives credence to this logical speculation.Goat wrote:Just a second, weren't you one of those people who insisted up and down that the judgement of Sodom had nothing to do with homosexuality? How can one be so certain about that not being the case and expect this speculative argument be given credence?Strider324 wrote:
I didn't say ALL widowers. Yes, it could be a combination - or they could have been gay. We'll never know.
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Post #30
[Replying to post 29 by Strider324]
Nobody knows for sure whether any specific person mentioned in the Bible was in fact gay.
All we have is opinion based on no more than speculation that is neither always logical nor ever provable.
Me too.That said, I couldn't care less whether anyone gives credence to this logical speculation.
Nobody knows for sure whether any specific person mentioned in the Bible was in fact gay.
All we have is opinion based on no more than speculation that is neither always logical nor ever provable.