Harvey1 wrote:jimspeiser wrote: So we are all, in a sense, agnostics. Me, I consider myself an agnostic atheist, like others here. I think it was here I read someone (ST88?) who said that they don't believe in God's existence (atheist) but they acknowledge that they don't know for certain that he doesn't exist (agnostic). That's me.
Recently I provided a quote by Huxley which shows that he clearly meant the term to distinguish himself from atheists, pantheists, etc. Russell also accepted the label identifying his beliefs, and he too distinguished himself from atheists. He even wrote an essay <A HREF="
http://www.merklee.com/notebook/agnostic2.htm">What is an Agnostic?</A>
Don't hold me to this, but I believe Huxley wrote before the concept of weak atheism was extant. And Russell, I think, just plain gets it wrong.
However, rather than focus solely on the historical, there is a common sense reason to distinguish atheism and agnosticism. Both can quite legitimately express strong and weak versions that do not overlap, and therefore it makes absolutely no sense to extend atheism's border into agnosticism. Also, agnosticism is not a belief of ultimate knowledge, i.e., ontology (as you construe it), it is a belief of justified knowledge, i.e., epistemology. Weak agnostics are saying that we cannot justify based on the current evidence that we know God exists, and the strong version of agnosticism says that we can never have enough evidence to make this justification.
Indeed, I would say that agnosticism is not a belief at all, it is a statement of fact. "We currently cannot know for certain whether or not God exists." It is more of an epistemological axiom than anything. If you disagree, try arguing against it. Atheism, on the other hand, at least weak atheism, is a statement of belief (or more correctly, disbelief). So it is possible to acknowledge a fact, and hold a belief that is at least partly based on that fact.
The weak atheists won't go so far as to say the current evidence rules out God for all time, they simply say that the current evidence is such that we can safely say that God does not exist. They don't deny that evidence might turn up in the future. This is quite different from the agnostic position as you can see.
Different, because it's on a different continuum. You use the word overlap as if atheism and agnosticism are part of the same spectrum of belief. I maintain that, strictly adhering to Huxley's definition, "God is unknowable," atheism is one possible belief system that uses that fact as a basis. There can also be theistic agnostics. "I don't know for certain, but I will have faith."
There's nothing at all contradictory in what I said if we accept causation as being 'probable'. In terms of the big bang, the question is 'probable' to what? For example, what is the probability that I got out of bed sometime yesterday? The answer is that it is less than 1 prior to yesterday (since I could have been sick...), but if I consider it from the perspective of today, the answer is that it is entirely 1 (since, in fact, I did get out of bed yesterday). So, it is entirely misleading to assign probabilities of less than 1 (as Q.Smith wants to do) when talking about a beginning in a quantum cosmological context. For all we know, there is no other possibility besides the universe that emerged, hence even an infinitesimal probability is 1 since the other 0.999999... probabilities are eliminated since they cannot happen. As an easy illustration, take a dishpan and poke a small hole in the bottom of it (pick an indiscriminate or unlikely location where water would flow from the bottom). Then fill the dishpan with water. Now, what is the likelyhood water would flow from that spot? The answer is 1 of course, even though potentially there are many spots water could have flowed from the bottom had the hole existed there.
Upon reflection, you are correct. "Cause indeterminable" does not equal "without cause." I retract the argument. I never liked that one, anyway.
jimspeiser wrote:Second, you seem to get a little ahead of yourself when you state that everything had to have a cause, including the universe, and so God had to will the universe into being. But why does it have to be God, or any sentient being? It is possible that there exists a great cosmic something out there whose sole function is universe-creation. It exists in some plane of reality outside the universe, which may be infinite, may in fact be best described in metaphysical terms, but which is not necessarily the realm of gods. This cosmic whatsit could be perfectly brainless, yet perfectly infinite and perfectly capable of creating a Universe that looks like this one - or other universes, attached to other parts of the whatsit, may be in operation as we speak.
Yes, I suppose it could, however in order to avoid the causative paradox that I mentioned to Bernie, then you have to identify a cause with something that is causation itself, that is, it must be some kind of metalogic (i.e., language-based).
Huh? You wanna hit me with that one again? Go easy, I ain't Joe College. What does language have to do with it?
jimspeiser wrote:The main point is this: you raise the Argument from Causation to attempt to show the necessity of a causative agent, which we can grant for argument's sake, but then make the unsupported leap to assuming that this agent had to be sentient, had to have the will to create the Universe. Since you are the one claiming that God is both necessary and sufficient to Universe-creation, the burden of proof lies on you to support both components, necessary and sufficient. The burden on the atheist side is less, since all we need to show is something else that even conjecturally might be sufficient to Universe-creation - and having done so, the necessity of God is thus obviated.
Let's pretend this were science. As a 'scientist' I have the prerogative to believe my hypothesis if it explains the unknown cause of a phenomena. But, you as another 'scientist' can believe another hypothesis to explain the same unknown cause, but if you want to deny my hypothesis in front of others, then you have to not only submit your hypothesis as a competing hypothesis, but in addition you have to show why my hypothesis is not reasonable.
Perhaps, but this is not science, since neither hypothesis is currently testable. It's philosophy, and as such my previous statement stands.
Sooo..., what evidence to you have that makes you an atheist to my explanation? Can you account for my argument against atheism (i.e., causal paradox I discussed), and can you provide a better explanation that explains the universe in a philosophical sense (I'm not asking for a scientific theory, I'm asking for an ontology which makes sense)?
I am agnostic to your explanation because you have failed to show that it is the only one possible. I am atheistic towards it because it violates Occam's Razor, in that you have tacked on a requirement ("sentience") which I consider unnecessary to the act of "universe-creation." Make a case that a causative force would
have to be sentient, and we'll talk.