Peace again to you all,
unknown soldier wrote: ↑Mon Dec 07, 2020 9:16 pm
tam wrote: ↑Mon Dec 07, 2020 3:45 pmYes, Christ is quoted as rebuking James and John in one instance of their asking him to burn a particular village of people for rejecting Christ.
Not just "in one instance". In the ONLY instance.
How do you know that the apostles didn't want to do violence to unbelievers on other occasions?
And this is yet another example of how your 'case' is based upon supposition and conjecture, but not evidence.
There are NO instances of Christ giving His disciples permission to burn a village (or a person), for rejecting Him (or them).
We don't really know what Christ may have been telling his apostles behind the scenes.
See above.
We do know that the gospels portray the apostles in some cases as violent or potentially violent men wanting to inflict or actually inflicting deadly violence on Christ's perceived enemies.
Each time rebuked. THAT is the evidence.
"Maybe something happened that we don't know about" is not evidence.
How can you explain their behavior if Christ taught them love and peace?
As already explained, they were in training. They were learning. That is what it means to be a student (a disciple).
This is why I say that your 'case' is based upon supposition and conjecture, with no actual evidence to back it up.
So my quoting the Bible doesn't qualify as evidence?
Your 'maybe something happened that we don't know about'... is not a quote from the bible; nor is it evidence of any kind. It is supposition and conjecture, based upon... nothing. It is supposition and conjecture that contradicts the actual quotes and evidence we DO have, from the bible.
Why then, does your quoting the Bible qualify as evidence?
Because it actually is a quote from the bible. Supposition about what may or may not have happened behind the scenes - absent evidence (even contradicting the evidence we do have) is not 'quoting the bible'.
In what instances did Christ tell His followers to DO violence?
We really don't know.
Conjecture, supposition, no evidence, even contradicting the evidence that we do have.
Please note the words 'on the day of judgment'.
Yes, on the day of judgment (Matthew 11) Christ will do horrible things to entire communities of people because they were not impressed with his magic. No way could such talk inspire violence in people, ay Tam?
Have you never considered shame, embarrassment, regret, jealousy... to be the 'terrible things'? Perhaps specifically the shame, if you are at the judgment and Sodom and Gomorah are shown to be more righteous than you. Confronted with the truth of what a person has (or has not) done, having one's shame laid out for everyone to see... ?
In any case, what you seem to be overlooking is the fact that this occurs on the day of Judgment, and that God is the Judge, and that people are judged by God according to their words and their deeds. The fact that there is a Judge and a judgment in no way provides anyone permission to go ahead and enact vigilantism. Especially when the commands of Christ speak directly against doing such a thing.
If someone commits murder, we the people have no right to go and enact our personal brand of justice upon them, do we?
Yes, we as a society punish those convicted of violating the law.
Yes? Yes, we have the right to go out and enact our personal brand of justice upon someone? Vigilantism?
Did you misunderstand the point? Or did you just dodge that point because you 'got' it; and it refutes your position?
They receive a trial, with a judge and/or jury, and the judge determines their sentence. I assume you can understand that, so why can you not understand the same when it comes to the day of Judgment that Christ speaks of, when people are judged by God (the Judge) according to their words and deeds?
I see that you concede Christ's deadly violence. In any case, like I posted above, we do not punish people for what they believe like Christ said he would. We have gone beyond that kind of barbarism.
I concede no such thing, as pointed out above. I do see that you continue to dodge the point.
They all had learnings and baggage from their previous 'teachers of the law' (just as anyone who has been in a religion has leftover baggage from the erroneous teachings in that religion), including errors from those teachers and from the scribes who had handled the law falsely.
You have a point there. The apostles were no doubt influenced by Moses and the prophets like Elijah who had the priests of Baal butchered. I think it's unlikely, however, that Christ tried to tell them anything different. Christ, after all, lauded the barbaric Jewish law, and he no doubt glorified all the bloodshed in it when he spoke to his apostles.
So are you admitting that you do not know the gospels as well as you claim? You do not recall the instances where Christ said "You have heard it said, but I tell you now..." Or the times He explained that certain laws were given as an allowance for the hard hearts of the people? You do not recall Christ correcting the Pharisees and telling them to go and learn what it means that God desires mercy, not sacrifice? You do not recall that the prophet Jeremiah stated,
"How can you say, 'we are wise for we have the law of [the LORD]', when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" You do not recall Christ ever saying
'woe to you scribes and teachers of the law'?
Etc.
If they WERE listening to His voice, they could not have burned people at the stake, or executed them in any way, or persecuted and tortured them, etc. Because these go against His commands and against the law (which law is love).
Those who burned people at the stake got the idea of burning people from Christ's dogmas about hell and Satan and demons and a wrathful God.
You keep saying this as if the so-called evidence that you are using to support your 'claim' has not been refuted or disputed.
I am again repeating myself. Tam, you really need to educate yourself about the Inquisition.
Perhaps you think I should take the word of people who have proven to be corrupt, who have proven to disobey the commands of Christ (or have proven to simply not care what He commanded to begin with)? Like you are doing, in taking their word? Because it just does not seem wise to me to accept the word of those who reveal themselves to be corrupt, to be liars, to be murderers, etc.
Especially when those people acted in direct disobedience and conflict to the words and the commands of the One they claimed as their leader.
Especially when Christ warned us about false christs (false anointed, false christians) and false prophets:
"Beware of false prophets. They come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ravenous wolves. By their fruit you will recognize them."
“See to it that no one deceives you. For many will come in My name, claiming, ‘I am the Christ, and will deceive many."
Many will say to me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name and in your name drive out demons and in your name perform many miracles?' Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'
If they had already known the truth, why would Christ have come to lead them into all truth, to bear witness to the truth, to teach them all things, to correct them (and the teachers of the law)?
Christ like most Jews of his day was putting his own spin on the Jewish scriptures. They all thought they had "the truth," so Christ was no different in that regard.
Did you miss the point again?
He corrected things that they had learned previously (incorrectly). Such as hating one's enemies.
...but what of rebuking Peter? If Peter had kept swinging his sword at those arresting Christ, then I think that would have hobbled their efforts to arrest Christ.
It may have, but you continue to overlook the point that Christ healed the person harmed.
I did not overlook Christ's pasting the guy's ear back on after Peter slashed it off! I already told you that the healing was done so that the arrest may proceed.
You did not tell me that. Nor does that make any sense at all. Why in the world would the injury of one man prevent the arrest of another man?
It would have been kind of hard to arrest Christ while a man was writhing in pain and bleeding all over the place.
How so? How exactly does the injury of one man (the servant of another man) prevent the soldiers present from arresting a different man?
I'm sure there is evidence aplenty in the world of arrests being carried out despite someone being injured, if you are somehow in doubt of that possibility. If your claim was true, I mean, that would be a FOOLPROOF way for anyone to get out of being arrested, right? Just fight back and injure someone and VOILA! The arrest is now too hard to be completed, and you get to go free.
Why, then, did Peter act with such fury and deadly violence when he saw his leader being arrested? So far we have three examples of Christ's followers inspired to violence for him. Why, then, do you deny others inspired to violence for Christ?
You have two examples of violence (or desire for violence) from three people. And in each case, Christ rebuked said violence (or desire for violence).
You're not answering my questions. Please answer them.
I answered them when you asked them at the start of your post. I did not see any reason that I should need to answer the same question twice in the exact same post.
Peace again to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy