Re: Fitting Bible literalism into history

[Athetotheist]

I originally posted this in Random Ramblings and it was suggested that I come up with a question to start a discussion. So here it is:


2348 BCE (Ussher calculation)---A global flood wipes out every human being on earth except Noah and his closest relatives.

2345 BCE (three years after the flood)---Teti becomes pharoah of Egypt, beginning that country's sixth dynasty.

2334 BCE (fourteen years after the flood)---Sargon I conquers southern Mesopotamia and founds the Akkadian Empire.

So for a question: Can Bible literalists explain why historical records don't have gaps in them where there should be gaps from the flood? And what does giving up a literal interpretation of Genesis mean for interpreting the rest of the Bible?

[JehovahsWitness]

"Can Bible literalists explain why historical records don't have gaps in them where there should be gaps from the flood?"


Tcg

What do you mean "there should be gaps from the flood"?

If there were literally a global flood that wiped out all human life except 8, there would be numerous civilizations which would have come to an abrupt end. History would reflect that if it happened. It doesn't.


Tcg

You mean the dead civilizations should have recorded their demise?






JW

[Tcg]

"Can Bible literalists explain why historical records don't have gaps in them where there should be gaps from the flood?"


Tcg

What do you mean "there should be gaps from the flood"?

If there were literally a global flood that wiped out all human life except 8, there would be numerous civilizations which would have come to an abrupt end. History would reflect that if it happened. It doesn't.


Tcg

You mean the dead civilizations should have recorded their demise?

JW

Of course not. The histories of those civilizations would come to an end. Their own records of events would stop. They don't of course.


Tcg

[JehovahsWitness]

Of course not. The histories of those civilizations would come to an end. Their own records of events would stop. They don't of course.


Tcg

So your basically asking why we can read of the uninterrupted history of "preflood" civilisations? (Based of course on the premise the dating and history of such "preflood" civilisations is accurate).

[Tcg]

Of course not. The histories of those civilizations would come to an end. Their own records of events would stop. They don't of course.


Tcg

So your basically asking why we can read of the uninterrupted history of "preflood" civilisations? (Based of course on the premise the dating and history of such "preflood" civilisations is accurate).

I didn't ask anything and certainly wouldn't refer to "preflood civilisations" given there is no reason to conclude a global flood ever happened. I in fact answered your question.


Tcg

[brunumb]

God made everything in story form for humans to convey in their maximum capability, and at least with a minimal understanding.

And if everyone was wiped out except for the righteous and faithful Noah and his cohort, how did all those other new religions spring up so quickly and thrive to this very day?

[TRANSPONDER]

Of course not. The histories of those civilizations would come to an end. Their own records of events would stop. They don't of course.


Tcg

So your basically asking why we can read of the uninterrupted history of "preflood" civilisations? (Based of course on the premise the dating and history of such "preflood" civilisations is accurate).

What you are making a claim for here is a civilisation we have evidence of that was suddenly wiped out about the supposed time of the Flood. Broadly 3,000 B.C. 2,000 if they are being related to Egypt, Mesopotamia, Mohenjo - Daro, China and of course the Neolithic cultures from Stonehenge to Malta's Neolithic temples. Now, though you are trying on the dismal old 'Generally validated dating could be wrong' denialist apologetic, the archaeology of these cultures and early civilisations show no catastrophic end. And where there are histories, no Flood - other than the Sumerian story, and that is easily explained as a river flooding legend expanded a bit to cover the world as they knew it, but there is no evidence I know of for anything other than the Black Sea local flood.

You simply have nothing but faith-based denial. Why not accept that Genesis is simply mythological guesswork and the writers could do no better than borrow from Babylonian legend?

[JehovahsWitness]

So your basically asking why we can read of the uninterrupted history of "preflood" civilisations? (Based of course on the premise the dating and history of such "preflood" civilisations is accurate).

I didn't ask anything ....

"Can Bible literalists explain why historical records don't have gaps in them where there should be gaps from the flood?"


Tcg

Okay, fair enough; I must have been thrown by the question mark. ---> (?) < ---- I generally take their presence to indicate something has been asked but evidently that was not the case.


Carry on.





JW

[Tcg]

So your basically asking why we can read of the uninterrupted history of "preflood" civilisations? (Based of course on the premise the dating and history of such "preflood" civilisations is accurate).

I didn't ask anything ....

"Can Bible literalists explain why historical records don't have gaps in them where there should be gaps from the flood?"


Tcg

Okay, fair enough; I must have been thrown by the question mark.

Carry on.

Odd given that there isn't one in the reply you asked your question about:


"Of course not. The histories of those civilizations would come to an end. Their own records of events would stop. They don't of course."


viewtopic.php?p=1056353#p1056353

It is quite clearly explained in the reply you cut off:

"I didn't ask anything and certainly wouldn't refer to "preflood civilisations" given there is no reason to conclude a global flood ever happened. I in fact answered your question."

Tcg

[JehovahsWitness]

Odd given that there isn't one in the reply you asked your question about:

I to see, you are right it is odd, especially given the above is a screenshot of my reply with the question I asked about.

Probably just a glitch in the matrix.



JW

[Tcg]

Odd given that there isn't one in the reply you asked your question about:

I to see, you are right it is odd, especially given the above is a screenshot of my reply with the question I asked about.

Probably just a glitch in the matrix.

JW

No glitch in the Matrix. Your chart doesn't document the posts under consideration, but you knew that already.

As can be clearly seen below, the only question mark included is yours:

Of course not. The histories of those civilizations would come to an end. Their own records of events would stop. They don't of course.


Tcg

So your basically asking why we can read of the uninterrupted history of "preflood" civilisations? (Based of course on the premise the dating and history of such "preflood" civilisations is accurate).

Additionally, it should be noted that the question you asked me about is not actually mine. You've quoted me failing to note that I was pointing out one of the questions from the O.P.

It is also important to note that the first question for debate asks about "Bible literalist." That is the focus of this thread:

"Can Bible literalists explain why historical records don't have gaps in them where there should be gaps from the flood?"

Tcg