Why is divorce not an option for Christians?

[arunangelo]

In marriage, spouses leave their parents and unite with each other (Mark 10:7) to become one flesh (Gen.2: 24). Because, it is a covenant of love, and God is love (1 John4:8), it is God who seals the marriage covenant; and no one can separate what God has joined together (Matt 19:6). In divorce, therefore, this covenant is not broken; it is rejected. Therefore, remarriage after divorce is adultery (Luke 16:18). Furthermore, since God seals this covenant, divorce is rejection of God. God, therefore, hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and is not pleased with the offerings of those who divorce their spouse (Malachi 2: 13-14). Jesus tells us that before making offering to God, we must reconcile with those with whom we have grievances (Matt. 5: 23-24). Therefore, a divorced person must first reconcile with his/her spouse before making an offering to the Lord. Furthermore, even if there is unfaithfulness a person must still stay faith to his/her spouse, just as God His faithful to us even when we reject Him (Hosea 3:1).

Divorce is absolutely prohibited in the Gospels (Mk 10:11-12, Luke 6:18; Matthew 5: 31-32). In Matthew’s gospel there appears to be an exception. The exception in the Greek text is porneia (which means incest or fornication), and not moiceia (which means adultery). In the Mosaic Law (Lv 18:6-18) certain types of marriages between close relatives were unlawful, because, they were regarded as incest (porneia). Certain rabbis, however, allowed gentile converts to Judaism to remain in such marriages. The exemption in Matthew’s gospel is against such permissiveness for gentile converts to Christianity. Fornication is another meaning for porneia. Therefore, this exception also applies to couples who fornicate by living together without a lawful marriage (also known as common law marriages).

surrendersacrifice
webs site: surrendersacrifice.com

[RJG]

He is likely pointing to the fact that here on this debate forum, it is the claimed Christians that have the hardest time following the rules that we all agreed to upon joining. This can be verified in the 'Probabtion' forum.

Makes it seem as though they are less honorable when compared to atheists that debate here when you would think the opposite should be true if they really had a god on their side. When I was a Christian, I know that thinking I had a god on my side helped me to cope with my intolerence for homosexuals and Muslims to name a couple.

Wow! Poison the well much.

To the OP: Divorce is not an option if we look to Mark.
Mark 10:9 Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.
Mark 10:11 He (Jesus) answered, "Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.
If you don't like what Jesus says, just reference other parts of the Bible and ignore what is claimed in Mark that Jesus said.

First of all, Christ is addressing the Pharisees in (Mark 10:1-9). (Mark 10:9) doesn't say divorce is not an option. Jesus Christ already acknowledged that divorce had been granted by God though Moses. (Mark. 10:3-5) (Deut. 24:1-4) But, though it was allowed, it was not the best way as Christ stated in (Mark 10:6). The best way was "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder". And, this is true.

Second of all, Christ is addressing his disciples in (Mark 10:10-12). And just as He has said Moses allowed Israel to divorce due to their hardness of heart, yet it wasn't always so. He tells and expects of His people not to divorce. He then says if you do divorce your spouse, and you marry another, then you are guilty of adultery.

Third of all, you must remember that the Mosaic Law is still in place. All that Christ is saying to both Pharisees and disciples, is to a people under the law. Christianity does not exist at this time. Just because (Matt.), (Mark), (Luke), are in the New Testament, doesn't mean they are on New Testament ground. They are not. It is Old Testament. And in (Matt. 5:31-32) where Christ limits the only cause for divorce to be fornication, Christ is speaking of the laws of the Kingdom to come. The whole Sermon on the Mount was about the laws of the Kingdom. And they will be more strict than the laws of Moses. This is not Christianity either. The Kingdom to come would be when Christ rules in Jerusalem over a repentant Israel and over the world. Christians can of course make application of these laws to themselves. But they are not laws that we are under.

Fourth of all, the Christian view of marriage and divorce should be taken from the New Testament epistles especially (1 Cor. 7:1-16).

Quantrill

Well, call me a prophet!
"If you don't like what Jesus says, just reference other parts of the Bible and ignore what is claimed in Mark that Jesus said."

All of a sudden, "what God has joined together, let no one separate" and "anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her" is ignored. We can make the Bible say just about anything we want. This seems to be an example of just that happening here.

Here is what Jesus said in Mark 10: 3-5
4 They said, “Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce and send her away.”
5 “It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,” Jesus replied.

Reading this, should a Christian heed the words of Moses or Jesus when it comes to divorce?
Should we really read it as?: What God has joined together, let no one separate. Except for in cases reported elsewhere in the Bible by another author. Then it is ok to separate what God has joined together.

'Let no one separate' reads pretty clearly to me.

Prophets don't exist in the Biblical sense of that word.

If a marriage doesn't work it is crazy to stay married just for the sake of religion, it certainly doesn't do any children of the marriage any favours as I know for a fact.

[Clownboat]

Well, call me a prophet!
"If you don't like what Jesus says, just reference other parts of the Bible and ignore what is claimed in Mark that Jesus said."

All of a sudden, "what God has joined together, let no one separate" and "anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her" is ignored. We can make the Bible say just about anything we want. This seems to be an example of just that happening here.

Here is what Jesus said in Mark 10: 3-5
4 They said, “Moses permitted a man to write a certificate of divorce and send her away.”
5 “It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,” Jesus replied.

Reading this, should a Christian heed the words of Moses or Jesus when it comes to divorce?
Should we really read it as?: What God has joined together, let no one separate. Except for in cases reported elsewhere in the Bible by another author. Then it is ok to separate what God has joined together.

'Let no one separate' reads pretty clearly to me.

How can you be a prophet. I never said I didn't like what Jesus said. I simply explained what Jesus said.

I trust the readers understand...

And, I explained that Christianity wasn't existent at that time. The Christian should heed the words of the epistles that were written for the Church. As I said, especially (1 Cor. 7:1-16). Much of what Christ said in (Mark) is still applied to the Christian. But some other things are added.

You don't take one verse out of the Bible and create a doctrine on it.

I have not done such a thing, so I don't understand why you bring this up.

You take all that is said concerning a subject observing who is speaking, who is being spoken to, and the context of the subject.

Done that. According to Jesus, anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.

Hebrews 13:4
Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled, for God will judge the sexually immoral and adulterous.
Deuteronomy 22:22
“If a man is found lying with the wife of another man, both of them shall die, the man who lay with the woman, and the woman. So you shall purge the evil from Israel.
Exodus 20:14
“You shall not commit adultery.
Luke 16:18
“Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery.
1 Corinthians 6:9
Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality,
Deuteronomy 5:18
“‘And you shall not commit adultery.
Matthew 5:27
“You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’

Is committing adultery OK?

[Quantrill]

I trust the readers understand...


I have not done such a thing, so I don't understand why you bring this up.

Done that. According to Jesus, anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.

Hebrews 13:4
Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled, for God will judge the sexually immoral and adulterous.
Deuteronomy 22:22
“If a man is found lying with the wife of another man, both of them shall die, the man who lay with the woman, and the woman. So you shall purge the evil from Israel.
Exodus 20:14
“You shall not commit adultery.
Luke 16:18
“Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery.
1 Corinthians 6:9
Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality,
Deuteronomy 5:18
“‘And you shall not commit adultery.
Matthew 5:27
“You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’

Is committing adultery OK?

Why do you confuse your words with mine? I don't blame you...as your position needs some help. But, you need to be clear on what you are saying and what I am saying. Unless of course what you are saying proves empty. Is that why you confuse my words with yours?

Save your questions after you correct your confusion.

Quantrill

[JurJar]

Divorce is not an option for Christians because marriage is one of the most important ceremonies in everyone's life. The main reason they say why you can't divorce is that love is sealed by God. I don't think so, I am divorced and I lived with my husband for seven years, and it was very hard for me to decide if I want to divorce. I have read a lot of forums like https://breakupangels.com/the-pros-and-cons-of-divorce/ and I decided that I need it. I was feeling not comfortable in our marriage, and I knew that we didn't love each other anymore. Now we are friends and we have built a beautiful relationship.

[nobspeople]

In marriage, spouses leave their parents and unite with each other (Mark 10:7) to become one flesh (Gen.2: 24). Because, it is a covenant of love, and God is love (1 John4:8), it is God who seals the marriage covenant; and no one can separate what God has joined together (Matt 19:6). In divorce, therefore, this covenant is not broken; it is rejected. Therefore, remarriage after divorce is adultery (Luke 16:18). Furthermore, since God seals this covenant, divorce is rejection of God. God, therefore, hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and is not pleased with the offerings of those who divorce their spouse (Malachi 2: 13-14). Jesus tells us that before making offering to God, we must reconcile with those with whom we have grievances (Matt. 5: 23-24). Therefore, a divorced person must first reconcile with his/her spouse before making an offering to the Lord. Furthermore, even if there is unfaithfulness a person must still stay faith to his/her spouse, just as God His faithful to us even when we reject Him (Hosea 3:1).

Divorce is absolutely prohibited in the Gospels (Mk 10:11-12, Luke 6:18; Matthew 5: 31-32). In Matthew’s gospel there appears to be an exception. The exception in the Greek text is porneia (which means incest or fornication), and not moiceia (which means adultery). In the Mosaic Law (Lv 18:6-18) certain types of marriages between close relatives were unlawful, because, they were regarded as incest (porneia). Certain rabbis, however, allowed gentile converts to Judaism to remain in such marriages. The exemption in Matthew’s gospel is against such permissiveness for gentile converts to Christianity. Fornication is another meaning for porneia. Therefore, this exception also applies to couples who fornicate by living together without a lawful marriage (also known as common law marriages).

surrendersacrifice
webs site: surrendersacrifice.com

There are so many divorced Christians. I wonder why no one told them divorce not an option for Christians?!?!
It makes me also wonder (sarcasm) why divorce (if not an option for Christians) is such a big deal, why aren't Christians protesting about it and trying to change laws like they do abortion and gay marriage?

[BibleTruth]

[Replying to arunangelo in post #1]

That is right! According to the Bible divorce is not permitted. The only thing you can do, is either stay alone forever or get back to your spouse. But we are not supposed to marry someone else, after we are already bound to someone. I think this is a very important topic and Christians should really think about it twice these days when they want to get divorced. It is simply not the will of God.

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to arunangelo in post #1]

That is right! According to the Bible divorce is not permitted. The only thing you can do, is either stay alone forever or get back to your spouse. But we are not supposed to marry someone else, after we are already bound to someone. I think this is a very important topic and Christians should really think about it twice these days when they want to get divorced. It is simply not the will of God.

Jesus did stipulate in scripture that adultery is a legitimate ground for divorce.




JW

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To learn more please go to other posts related to...

MARRIAGE , ADULTERY and ... DIVORCE

[Miles]

.

What I've always found ironic is the Bible's general disapproval of sex and general acceptance of violence.

.

[Athetotheist]

In marriage, spouses leave their parents and unite with each other (Mark 10:7) to become one flesh (Gen.2: 24). Because, it is a covenant of love, and God is love (1 John4:8), it is God who seals the marriage covenant; and no one can separate what God has joined together (Matt 19:6). In divorce, therefore, this covenant is not broken; it is rejected. Therefore, remarriage after divorce is adultery (Luke 16:18). Furthermore, since God seals this covenant, divorce is rejection of God. God, therefore, hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and is not pleased with the offerings of those who divorce their spouse (Malachi 2: 13-14). Jesus tells us that before making offering to God, we must reconcile with those with whom we have grievances (Matt. 5: 23-24). Therefore, a divorced person must first reconcile with his/her spouse before making an offering to the Lord. Furthermore, even if there is unfaithfulness a person must still stay faith to his/her spouse, just as God His faithful to us even when we reject Him (Hosea 3:1).

Divorce is absolutely prohibited in the Gospels (Mk 10:11-12, Luke 6:18; Matthew 5: 31-32). In Matthew’s gospel there appears to be an exception. The exception in the Greek text is porneia (which means incest or fornication), and not moiceia (which means adultery). In the Mosaic Law (Lv 18:6-18) certain types of marriages between close relatives were unlawful, because, they were regarded as incest (porneia). Certain rabbis, however, allowed gentile converts to Judaism to remain in such marriages. The exemption in Matthew’s gospel is against such permissiveness for gentile converts to Christianity. Fornication is another meaning for porneia. Therefore, this exception also applies to couples who fornicate by living together without a lawful marriage (also known as common law marriages).

surrendersacrifice
webs site: surrendersacrifice.com

"And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement and put her away.
And Jesus answered and said unto them, For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept." (Mark 10:4-5)

The problem Christianity runs into here is that what Moses wrote is part of scripture (Deuteronomy 24:1), and according to Christian doctrine, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness...." (2 Timothy 3:16).

If the scripture Moses wrote was given by divine inspiration, how could he have written it because of people's "hardness of heart"?

[JehovahsWitness]

The problem Christianity runs into here is that what Moses wrote is part of scripture (Deuteronomy 24:1), and according to Christian doctrine, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness...." (2 Timothy 3:16).

If the scripture Moses wrote was given by divine inspiration, how could he have written it because of people's "hardness of heart"?

I believe GOD directed Moses how to respond to the people's "hardness of heart".




JEHOVAHS WITNESS