You admit that the future subjects of the rulers will not be anointed (correct me if I'm wrong) but you fail to prove that those future (unanointed) subjects cannot become Christians today.
So? So what?! I'm not saying there were no anointed Cnristians in the first century, I am contending your claim (correct me if that is not what you are saying) that there cannot be any unanointed Christians today. It seems to me your faulty conclusion is based on a definition of Christian that cannot be found in scripture, namely that all Christians must be anointed to be considered Christians.tam wrote: All Christians in the examples from what is written are indeed anointed with holy spirit.
Yet you fail to prove this.