Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by unknown soldier »

Recently I was discussing Christ's love for the Jews with our resident prophetess, Tam. As far as Tam is concerned Christ can do no wrong, and she can post Bible passages to prove it. She is fond of posting passages describing Christ's preaching love, mercy, and forgiveness. Who can argue with that? Christ we can assume had to have acted on his love for the Jews, and that's why he spent so much time healing them, for example.

Well, we all know what happens when we assume. So rather than assume we know what Jesus' motive was, let's see what he actually said about it. John 9:2-3 (NRSV) gives us the answer:
As he walked along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” Jesus answered, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned; he was born blind so that God’s works might be revealed in him. ...
Did Christ say that his love for the Jews was the reason he was to restore this man's sight?

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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by JehovahsWitness »

unknown soldier wrote: Fri Nov 20, 2020 11:08 pmJohn 9:2 (NRSV) gives us the answer:
As he walked along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” Jesus answered, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned; he was born blind so that God’s works might be revealed in him. ...
Did Christ say that his love for the Jews was the reason he was to restore this man's sight?
No , not on that occassion he didn't. Evidently because he wasn't asked about his feelings for the man he was asked why the man was born blind. Thus his answer recorded at JOHN 9 sheds no light on his personal feelings and motivations.

While it could be argued Jesus should have taken the opportunity to express his love for the man, it is more than unreasonable to extrapolate from this seeming omission that he hated Jews or the man himself. Indeed most reasonable people might suggest that Jesus expressed his feelings for the man in actions rather than words, since he subseqently went on to help the blind man in a life changing way.

Further evidence of his feelings for the man is found in the conclusion of the chapter where we read that upon hearing he had been expulsed from his community (for expressing his faith) he (Jesus) found him and encouraged him. Evidently then, Jesus took a personal interest in the individual. The above illustrates something fundamental that marks Jesus ministry, unlike some preachers today that speak about love but rarely show any, Jesus didn't generally go about saying "I love you, I love you !" He rather chose to show his love, concern and tender feelings of compassion for people by tirelessly expending of himself ministering, teaching, helping and yes and healing them. He was, one could say, love in action.




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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by bjs1 »

[Replying to unknown soldier in post #1]

JW is correct that Jesus’ motivation was not mentioned in John 9. However, Jesus expressed love for the Jews as a people (Luke 13:34) and towards individual Jews (John 11:3).
Ignorance more frequently begets confidence than does knowledge.
-Charles Darwin

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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by JehovahsWitness »

There are a number of scriptures where we do learn bout Jesus motivations.


MATTHEW 20: 32 - 34

So Jesus stopped, called them, and said: “What do you want me to do for you?” 33 They said to him: “Lord, let our eyes be opened.” 34 Moved with pity,+ Jesus touched their eyes,+ and immediately they recovered their sight, and they followed him.
MATTHEW 20: 32 - 34

On seeing the crowds, he felt pity for them because they were skinned and thrown about like sheep without a shepherd.
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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by tam »

Peace to you,


[Replying to unknown soldier in post #1]

When [Jesus] landed and saw a large crowd, he had compassion on them and healed their sick. Matthew 14:14

Then a leper came to [Jesus], begging on his knees: “If You are willing, You can make me clean.” 41 Moved with compassion, [Jesus] reached out His hand and touched the man. “I am willing, He said. “Be clean! " Immediately the leprosy left him and he was cleansed. Mark 1:40-42

As He approached the town gate, He saw a dead man being carried out, the only son of his mother, and she was a widow. And a large crowd from the town was with her. 13When the Lord saw her, He had compassion on her and said, “Do not weep. 14Then He went up and touched the coffin, and those carrying it stood still. “Young man,” He said, “I tell you, get up!” Luke 7:13-14



I do believe those passages respond to the OP, all on their own.



Peace again to you all,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by unknown soldier »

[Replying to JehovahsWitness in post #2]

John 9:2 tells us that the man was blinded from birth by God for a specific reason. What does Christ say that reason is?

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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by unknown soldier »

[Replying to bjs1 in post #3]

John 9:2 tells us that the man was blinded from birth by God for a specific reason. What does Christ say that reason is?

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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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[Replying to tam in post #5]

John 9:2 tells us that the man was blinded from birth by God for a specific reason. What does Christ say that reason is?

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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by bjs1 »

unknown soldier wrote: Sat Nov 21, 2020 9:18 am [Replying to bjs1 in post #3]

John 9:2 tells us that the man was blinded from birth by God for a specific reason. What does Christ say that reason is?
John 9:2 says, "His disciples asked him, "Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?"

I assume that you meant to reference John 9:3, which in the NIV says, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.”

In that passage we are told why the event happen, but not Jesus motivation for his actions. That’s a little closer to what you are going for, but still does not state Jesus’ motivation.

Another possible translation of John 9:3-4 is, “Jesus said, ‘Neither this man nor his parents sinned for this to happen. That the work of God might be displayed in his life, as long as it is day we must do the work of him who sent me. Night is coming, when no one can work.’”

Both translations are grammatically accurate to the Greek.
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Re: Did Christ heal Jews because he loved them?

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Post by unknown soldier »

bjs1 wrote: Sat Nov 21, 2020 10:11 am
unknown soldier wrote: Sat Nov 21, 2020 9:18 am [Replying to bjs1 in post #3]

John 9:2 tells us that the man was blinded from birth by God for a specific reason. What does Christ say that reason is?
John 9:2 says, "His disciples asked him, "Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?"

I assume that you meant to reference John 9:3, which in the NIV says, “Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.”
The correct citation should be John 9:2-3. I edited the OP to include verse 3.

Anyway, you have the answer as to why the man was born blind in verse 3.
In that passage we are told why the event happen...
Please answer my question. Why was the man born blind?

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