Why is divorce not an option for Christians?

[arunangelo]

In marriage, spouses leave their parents and unite with each other (Mark 10:7) to become one flesh (Gen.2: 24). Because, it is a covenant of love, and God is love (1 John4:8), it is God who seals the marriage covenant; and no one can separate what God has joined together (Matt 19:6). In divorce, therefore, this covenant is not broken; it is rejected. Therefore, remarriage after divorce is adultery (Luke 16:18). Furthermore, since God seals this covenant, divorce is rejection of God. God, therefore, hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and is not pleased with the offerings of those who divorce their spouse (Malachi 2: 13-14). Jesus tells us that before making offering to God, we must reconcile with those with whom we have grievances (Matt. 5: 23-24). Therefore, a divorced person must first reconcile with his/her spouse before making an offering to the Lord. Furthermore, even if there is unfaithfulness a person must still stay faith to his/her spouse, just as God His faithful to us even when we reject Him (Hosea 3:1).

Divorce is absolutely prohibited in the Gospels (Mk 10:11-12, Luke 6:18; Matthew 5: 31-32). In Matthew’s gospel there appears to be an exception. The exception in the Greek text is porneia (which means incest or fornication), and not moiceia (which means adultery). In the Mosaic Law (Lv 18:6-18) certain types of marriages between close relatives were unlawful, because, they were regarded as incest (porneia). Certain rabbis, however, allowed gentile converts to Judaism to remain in such marriages. The exemption in Matthew’s gospel is against such permissiveness for gentile converts to Christianity. Fornication is another meaning for porneia. Therefore, this exception also applies to couples who fornicate by living together without a lawful marriage (also known as common law marriages).

surrendersacrifice
webs site: surrendersacrifice.com

[Athetotheist]

Changing the "national law code" is exactly what Jesus is telling his followers to do ...

Can you prove this by reference to anything other than your imagination ?

He commands his followers to disregard what the law says ....

Prove it. Where does does Jesus "command his followers to disregard what the law says" ?


JW

"You have heard that it was said......"

"But I say to you....."

.....over and over in Matthew 5. And what was "said" to them was said in the law.

[Athetotheist]

Biblically, Moses was merely the mediator, any laws he (Moses) communicated came from God, Moses "let" nothing.

That's a very good point, but do you realize what it means? It means that when Jesus says, "For the hardness of your hearts Moses suffered you to put away your wives", what he's actually saying is, "For the hardness of your hearts God suffered you to put away your wives."

How does that work?

[Athetotheist]

Peace to you,

And not divorcing for adultery would be irrelevant since the penalty for adultery was death (Deut. 22:22).

Thankfully God did not kill Israel when Israel was unfaithful. Instead, God sent Israel away with a certificate of divorce.

I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries. Yet I saw that her unfaithful sister Judah had no fear; she also went out and committed adultery. Jeremiah 3:8

This is in keeping with the truth Christ taught us about divorce, is it not? And, as I think you noted in a previous post, God hates divorce (Malachi 2:16).

The law as written is not without some error (due to the erring pen of the scribes, Jeremiah 8:8). Christ even told the Pharisees to go and learn what it meant that God desires mercy, not sacrifice; and that if they had known what that meant, they would not have condemned the innocent (Hosea 6:6; Matthew 12:7).

I choose to listen to the Messiah, the One to whom God said to listen (the One to whom Moses also said to listen to when He came). I know that His words are true and from God (and so also from love, since God is love and the law that proceeds from Him, that is from the beginning, is love). Love covers over a multitude of sins (Proverbs 10:12; 1Peter 4:8), and there is no law against love (Galatians 5:22, 23).




Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

The Bible may say that God hates divorce, but it doesn't say that God forbids divorce.

And the "copyist error" argument isn't as strong as all that. The problem is that if the parts you don't like can be dismissed as copyist errors, so can the parts you do like. Not only that, wouldn't a lot of copyists have been involved between the time of Moses and the time of Jesus? How could every jot and tittle (Mt. 5:18) be kept if so many jots and tittles had been obscured by copyists?

[JehovahsWitness]

He commands his followers to disregard what the law says ....

"You have heard that it was said......"

"But I say to you....."

.....over and over in Matthew 5. And what was "said" to them was said in the law.

You have pointed out where Jesus confirmed his disciples heard what both sources said; congratulations.

Now all you have to do is point out is what I actually asked namely: where Jesus told them to {quote} "disregard what the law says". Maybe with the words "Disobey the law", "break he law" , "The law is wrong don't follow the law" or some other such statement.

Changing the "national law code" is exactly what Jesus is telling his followers to do ...

And while you are at it where he suggest they to sit own and revise the national law, make their way to the Sennhedrin and request their amendement be put to a vote before the legislators therein.

Again what he said in your imagination and the words he is acutally recorded as uttering are not the same thing.

Try again,


JW

[JehovahsWitness]

Biblically, Moses was merely the mediator, any laws he (Moses) communicated came from God, Moses "let" nothing.

That's a very good point, but do you realize what it means? It means that when Jesus says, "For the hardness of your hearts Moses suffered you to put away your wives", what he's actually saying is, "For the hardness of your hearts God suffered you to put away your wives."

How does that work?

God adapted the law to allow for his people's stubborn nature. Do you have a problem with that?

[Athetotheist]

He commands his followers to disregard what the law says ....

"You have heard that it was said......"

"But I say to you....."

.....over and over in Matthew 5. And what was "said" to them was said in the law.

You have pointed out where Jesus confirmed his disciples heard what both sources said; congratulations.

Now all you have to do is point out is what I actually asked namely: where Jesus told them to {quote} "disregard what the law says". Maybe with the words "Disobey the law", "break he law" , "The law is wrong don't follow the law" or some other such statement.

Changing the "national law code" is exactly what Jesus is telling his followers to do ...

And while you are at it where he suggest they to sit own and revise the national law, make their way to the Sennhedrin and request their amendement be put to a vote before the legislators therein.

Again what he said in your imagination and the words he is acutally recorded as uttering are not the same thing.

Try again,


JW

I'm pointing out the ramification of the words he's recorded as uttering.

You're trying to use the old, "Where are the words 'separation-of-church-and-state' in the Constitution?" argument.

[Athetotheist]

Biblically, Moses was merely the mediator, any laws he (Moses) communicated came from God, Moses "let" nothing.

That's a very good point, but do you realize what it means? It means that when Jesus says, "For the hardness of your hearts Moses suffered you to put away your wives", what he's actually saying is, "For the hardness of your hearts God suffered you to put away your wives."

How does that work?

God adapted the law to allow for his people's stubborn nature. Do you have a problem with that?

Why would God "adapt" the law to allow for people's stubborn nature and then tell them that the allowance for their stubbornness was "right in his eyes" (Deut.13:18)?

[JehovahsWitness]

God adapted the law to allow for his people's stubborn nature. Do you have a problem with that?

Why would God "adapt" the law to allow for people's stubborn nature ...?

I am not God so I can only specuate as to his motives but His being reasonable, flexible, practical and merciful are reason that come to my mind.

Why would God ...tell them that the allowance for their stubbornness was "right in his eyes" (Deut.13:18)?

Because the allowance was right*, if he thought it was wrong he would not have done it. Everything God does is right and just and given the circumstances His decisions was best for all concerned.


* NOTE That is not to say their stubbornness was right but how God handled it was.




JW

[Athetotheist]

God adapted the law to allow for his people's stubborn nature. Do you have a problem with that?

Why would God "adapt" the law to allow for people's stubborn nature ...?

I am not God so I can only specuate as to his motives but His being reasonable, flexible, practical and merciful are reason that come to my mind.

Why would God ...tell them that the allowance for their stubbornness was "right in his eyes" (Deut.13:18)?

Because the allowance was right*, if he thought it was wrong he would not have done it. Everything God does is right and just and given the circumstances His decisions was best for all concerned.


* NOTE That is not to say their stubbornness was right but how God handled it was.

I should clarify by rephrasing my question:

Why would God adapt the law to allow for the people's stubbornness and then lead them to believe that the stubbornness he was allowing for was "right in his eyes" (Deut. 13:18)? Why would God give them a law which allowed them to indulge in stubbornness and then mislead them into believing that they could "love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul (Deut. 11:13) while indulging in that stubbornness?

You challenged me to show where Jesus "commanded" his followers to violate the law. I challenge you to show me where Moses said that any part of the law was "adapted" to people's "stubbornness". Really, when you think about it, Jesus is making Moses out to be a deceiver.

[JehovahsWitness]

Why would God ... lead them to believe that the stubbornness he was allowing for was "right in his eyes" (Deut. 13:18)?

Nothing in scripture indicates stubbornness is "right in Gods eyes". Indeed, once something is labelled " stubbornness" as was the case with Jesus description of those Jews, it is by definition "not good" since " stubbornness" is a highly undesirable quality condemned in scripture.

Why would God give them a law which allowed them to indulge in stubbornness ...?

I do believe I just answered that question.
viewtopic.php?p=1028779#p1028779

... I challenge you to show me where Moses said that any part of the law was "adapted" to people's "stubbornness". ...

Did I say MOSES said that? Jesus stated that. I don't do strawman arguments.

Why would God ... mislead them into believing that they could "love the Lord your God and serve him with all your heart and with all your soul (Deut. 11:13) while indulging in that stubbornness?

Where did he do that?