THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

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Eddie Ramos
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THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #1

Post by Eddie Ramos »

Since our method of biblical interpretation is the backbone of our doctrine, would God simply provide a book for us without teaching us how he intended for us to understand what he wrote? It's common knowledge that the most widely known and accepted method of biblical interpretation is the "Literal-Grammatical-Historical Method". This means that most doctrines people hold to be true are built upon this foundation.

My first question, to those who hold to this method is, can you provide any scripture that teaches this method as the correct method of biblical interpretation? For example, Timothy 2:15 tells us to rightly divide the Word of Truth, but we can't infer that this means to look for the Literal-Grammatical-Historical Method. It simply says to rightly divide it. And who can teach us how God intends for us to rightly divide it, if not the one whose very words these are? God himself.

It seems that so much trust has been placed on the scholars and theologians and church leaders who've handed us a method of hermeneutic that they've come up with, but that isn't actually derived from the scriptures themselves. Does anyone find that strange? But did you know that God has indeed provided us with scriptures upon scriptures that teach us just how he intended for us to approach His Word and rightly divide it?

I will begin by posting just a few and expounding from there as the conversations progress.

1. The Bible is a spiritual book, therefore, in looking for the literal understanding of a passage as our source of truth, we have missed the mark and the intended meaning of the deeper truth that God has provided, which is the gospel message.

Romans 7:14 (KJV 1900)
For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.


2. As a spiritual book, the Bible teaches us that we must compare, not literal with literal, but spiritual with spiritual if we expect the Holy Ghost to teach.

1 Corinthians 2:13 (KJV 1900)
Which things also we speak, not in the words which man’s wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.


3. When we merely search for the Literal-Grammatical-Historical rendering of a passage, then we will miss the spiritual meanings contained within the Word of God. And that is exactly how God designed His Word, to conceal spiritual truth. God's hermeneutic is by design and easily rejected by those who trust more in man's wisdom than in God's.

Isaiah 28:9–10 (KJV 1900)

Whom shall he teach knowledge?
And whom shall he make to understand doctrine?

Them that are weaned from the milk,
And drawn from the breasts.
10  For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept;
Line upon line, line upon line;
Here a little, and there a little:

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #11

Post by Eddie Ramos »

myth-one.com wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 12:38 am
Eddie Ramos wrote: Tue Aug 02, 2022 11:12 pm So, let's go ahead and take a look at perhaps the most popular verse in all the bible, John 3:16. According to the literal-grammatical method of interpretation, people take it to mean that God loved the world (meaning all the people in the world) so much, that He sent his son to die for all of them. And that anyone (whosoever) who believes in him, will not perish, but will have eternal life.
That is not a literal reading of John 3:16. You have made what is called a "private interpretation."

Nowhere in that verse does it state that God sent His only begotten Son to die for us! That is not what saves us.

Nowhere does it state that all the world will be saved. Only whosoever believeth will be saved.


Try again.
I will repeat myself for clarity. The literal method of interpretation is not the biblical method of interpretation. It is not the method which leads to spiritual understanding. Having said that, John 3:16 is certainly taken (by most) to mean exactly what I wrote above. You say that it doesn't say that God sent his son to die for us? What do you think he "gave" his only begotten Son for? Everything in the Bible testifies that Christ's sole purpose was to die for sins.

Matthew 15:24 (KJV) 24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

John 10:15 (KJV) 15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.

John 12:27 (KJV) 27 Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour.

myth-one.com wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 12:38 am That is not what saves us.
The Bible disagrees.

Hebrews 9:22 (KJV) 22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.

The whole of the scriptures (the gospel) teaches that death (the shedding of blood) was necessary in order to make forgiveness of sins possible. This picture was first demonstrated throughout the Old Testament sacrificial period. The only thing is, that none of the animal sacrifices ever did anything to take away sins.


Hebrews 10:4 (KJV) 4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

myth-one.com wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 12:38 am
John 3:16 wrote:For God so loved the world, ....

Quote one verse which contradicts a literal reading of John 3:16. If you can't, then the literal reading is the correct reading.
Ok. If God loved the world, then why does God hate others?

Romans 9:13 (KJV) 13 As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.

Psalms 5:5 (KJV)
5 The foolish shall not stand in thy sight:
thou hatest all workers of iniquity.

Psalms 11:5 (KJV)
5 The LORD trieth the righteous:
but the wicked and him that loveth violence his soul hateth.

Psalms 10:3 (KJV)
3 For the wicked boasteth of his heart's desire,
and blesseth the covetous, whom the LORD abhorreth.


So, the answer to my own question here is, because the word "love" in John 3:16 has everything to do with the atonement of Christ. It was particular, in that it was meant for a certain people within the world. This is why we read so many verses about God "hating" this person or these types of people. Because God's love and hatred are synonymous with his atonement. He who was loved of God had his sins paid for by Christ's death, and he who is hated of God, must pay for his own sins by his own death in order to satisfy the demands of the law of God (Rom 6:23).
myth-one.com wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 12:38 am
Eddie Ramos wrote:The witness/record/words of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost agree as one record. This is where God teaches us that we must search for harmony within His record, the Bible.
So God wrote the record harmonious, but not obvious, as one has to search for the harmony within His record.
Exactly! I could not have summed up the scriptures better myself.

Isaiah 45:15 (KJV)
15 Verily thou art a God that hidest thyself,
O God of Israel, the Saviour.

Proverbs 25:2 (KJV)
2 It is the glory of God to conceal a thing (A WORD):
but the honour of kings is to search out a matter (A WORD).

Matthew 13:10-11 (KJV) 10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables? 11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #12

Post by myth-one.com »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 6:46 am So, let's go ahead and take a look at perhaps the most popular verse in all the bible, John 3:16. According to the literal-grammatical method of interpretation, people take it to mean that God loved the world (meaning all the people in the world) so much, that He sent his son to die for all of them. And that anyone (whosoever) who believes in him, will not perish, but will have eternal life.
That is not a literal reading of John 3:16. You have made what is called a "private interpretation" by adding words which are not in the verse.

Nowhere in John 3:16 does it state that God sent His only begotten Son to die for us! That is not what saves us.

And nowhere does it state that all the world will be saved. Only whosoever believeth will be saved.

Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 6:46 amJohn 3:16 is certainly taken (by most) to mean exactly what I wrote above.
Yes, that is correct. Most Christians believe the erroneous private interpretation which you wrote above. That's not the issue.
Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 6:46 amYou say that it doesn't say that God sent his son to die for us?
And you claim that it does! So point out to me where John 3:16 states that God sent His Son to die for us. If you cannot do so, please stop making that false claim.

<==============================================>
Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 6:46 amWhat do you think he "gave" his only begotten Son for? Everything in the Bible testifies that Christ's sole purpose was to die for sins.
The Word was made flesh as the Jewish man Jesus Christ to fix the fault in the original covenant between man and God.

Once committed to the plan and born as a man, Jesus had no choice but to die:
Hebrews 9:27 wrote:And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
Jesus' sinless life is what saves us -- not His appointed death.

His actual appointed death simply ended His sinless human life under the Old Testament Covenant. That"s the importance of His death.

By living a sinless human life under that Covenant, He became an heir to everlasting life under the Old Testament Covenant.

God then allowed a New Testament Covenant to be written where Jesus offers His inheritance earned under the first covenant to those who believe in Him as their Saviour. That is what saves believers!

The gift of the everlasting life earned by Jesus thus becomes "a gift of God through Jesus Christ".

That is what saves believers. We are not saved by any human sacrifice.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #13

Post by 2timothy316 »

There are two basic types of Bible interpretation.
Exegesis and eisegesis.
https://www.gotquestions.org/exegesis-eisegesis.html

Exegesis is the superior method because it is objective and not subjective like eisegesis.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #14

Post by Eddie Ramos »

2timothy316 wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 12:51 pm There are two basic types of Bible interpretation.
Exegesis and eisegesis.
https://www.gotquestions.org/exegesis-eisegesis.html

Exegesis is the superior method because it is objective and not subjective like eisegesis.
If you could, please provide the scriptures that teach or support what you are suggesting is the correct biblical method of interpretation. This way we have something to compare it against.

1 Corinthians 14:32 (KJV)
32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #15

Post by Eddie Ramos »

myth-one.com wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 10:52 am
The Word was made flesh as the Jewish man Jesus Christ to fix the fault in the original covenant between man and God.

Once committed to the plan and born as a man, Jesus had no choice but to die:
Hebrews 9:27 wrote:And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
Jesus' sinless life is what saves us -- not His appointed death.

His actual appointed death simply ended His sinless human life under the Old Testament Covenant. That"s the importance of His death.

By living a sinless human life under that Covenant, He became an heir to everlasting life under the Old Testament Covenant.

God then allowed a New Testament Covenant to be written where Jesus offers His inheritance earned under the first covenant to those who believe in Him as their Saviour. That is what saves believers!

The gift of the everlasting life earned by Jesus thus becomes "a gift of God through Jesus Christ".

That is what saves believers. We are not saved by any human sacrifice.
Sadly, your doctrine as specified above, is what the whole point on my OP was about. When one develops their own method of interpretation, outside of the Bible's methods, then they will always arrive at conclusions which contradict the Bible. And when any doctrine contradicts the Bible, then it is not the Bible which needs to make correction, but man.

The Bible, as a whole, focuses the key element to forgiveness of our sins (i.e. salvation) to death which satisfies the demands of the law.

Romans 6:23 (KJV 1900)
For the wages (payment) of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.


This was the law the given to Adam and Eve, and the day they sinned their soul died and mankind became separated from God because of sin.

Isaiah 59:2 (KJV 1900)
2  But your iniquities have separated between you and your God,
And your sins have hid his face from you, that he will not hear.


Death therefore, became the necessary payment for atonement. This is the core of the gospel contained in all of scripture.

Leviticus 17:11 (KJV 1900)
11 For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.


But the problem with the first covenant was that the blood offered to make atonement for the souls, actually never provided atonement at all because they were only shadows pointing to the actual sacrifice made by the true high priest which was Christ.

Hebrews 9:22–26 (KJV 1900)
22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission (no forgiveness). 23 It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these. 24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us: 25 Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others; 26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.


His death was the key of the atonement, but not under the Old Covenant (Testament) but under the New Testament because the old had a fault in that the blood of bulls and goats could never take away sin.

Hebrews 10:4 (KJV 1900)
4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.



Matthew 26:28 (KJV 1900)
28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.


And Jesus did not die sinless, but he died bearing the full burden of the sins of his people, taking the punishment of the law upon himself.

2 Corinthians 5:21 (KJV 1900)
21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.


Colossians 2:13–14 (KJV 1900)
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; 14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us , which was contrary to us (the law which condemned us) , and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;


1 Peter 3:18 (KJV 1900)
18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:


1 Peter 2:24 (KJV 1900)
24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.


I could go on posting that the death of Christ was the only means by which we obtained forgiveness of sins and eternal life. But I have a feeling that none of these verse matter to you if you are set on believing that your doctrine is correct. Rather than asking yourself what to do with each and every verse that contradicts your doctrine, because ignoring them is not the way to achieve harmony (perhaps on that much we can agree).

And Christ most certainly had a choice to die for his sheep, that's what makes him such a merciful God. He could have justly condemned every single human being to death for breaking his law, but instead, he chose to have mercy on some.

John 10:17–18 (KJV 1900)
17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. 18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.


In a debate, no one wins. I have read many debates throughout this site where the debaters will self-proclaim themselves the victor over each exchange because they are set in their own ways and methods of interpretations. That is not what I'm after. If wining a debate is what anyone in this thread is after, then the victory is all yours. What I'm after, is to continue to learn from complete strangers any amount of scriptural truth that may lead me to correction if necessary. But that correction can never come from the intellect of man, but from the only source of truth we possess, the Bible. And from the Bible, I would gladly accept correction, even is it's presented by total strangers. My hope is that you'll desire the same, and ask yourself, how do all of these scriptures support your doctrine that says, "We are not saved by any human sacrifice."?

Romans 5:6–11 (KJV 1900)
6 For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly. 7 For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die. 8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. 9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him. 10 For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life. 11 And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #16

Post by myth-one.com »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 10:10 pm The Bible, as a whole, focuses the key element to forgiveness of our sins (i.e. salvation) to death which satisfies the demands of the law.
That is incorrect!

Under the New Testament man came under grace and not the demands of the law.

Good works earned one salvation under the Old Testament. That is, if a person never violated any of God's laws, he or she gained eternal life.

After Jesus died, we fell under the grace of Jesus Christ for our salvation, not our works to fulfill the law. So sin no longer controls our salvation:
Romans 6:14 wrote:For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #17

Post by Diogenes »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Tue Aug 02, 2022 5:48 am
"My first question, to those who hold to this method (or any method you described above) is, can you provide any scripture that teaches this method as the correct method of biblical interpretation?"
To use an analogy your question asks,
"Why cannot a man stuck in a bog pull himself out of the muck by firmly grasping his own boot straps?"

A second problem your post glosses over... or rather, completely ignores, is that the canon is composed of many books by many different authors, most anonymous. Some, like Job are obviously plays, not to be taken literally. Others are polemics, arguments. Still others are poetry. Some are intended as history. Yet you want to impose a single "interpretation" that somehow should fit each genre. This is a fool's errand, not to mention an attempt at poor scholarship.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #18

Post by Eddie Ramos »

myth-one.com wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 9:58 pm
Eddie Ramos wrote: Wed Aug 03, 2022 10:10 pm The Bible, as a whole, focuses the key element to forgiveness of our sins (i.e. salvation) to death which satisfies the demands of the law.
That is incorrect!

Under the New Testament man came under grace and not the demands of the law.

Good works earned one salvation under the Old Testament. That is, if a person never violated any of God's laws, he or she gained eternal life.

After Jesus died, we fell under the grace of Jesus Christ for our salvation, not our works to fulfill the law. So sin no longer controls our salvation:
Romans 6:14 wrote:For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Being that you did not address a single verse which contradicts your doctrine, but rather just rejected it, then there is no point in us continuing this discussion because that's exactly how the rest of our exchange will be. So, it looks like you win this debate. Thank you for your time.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #19

Post by myth-one.com »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Fri Aug 05, 2022 6:25 amThe Bible, as a whole, focuses the key element to forgiveness of our sins (i.e. salvation) to death which satisfies the demands of the law.
But the scriptures as inspired by God wrote:
Romans 6:14 -- For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
I'll have to side with God on this one.
Eddie Ramos wrote: Fri Aug 05, 2022 6:25 am So, it looks like you win this debate. Thank you for your time.
Sorry, Eddie, but I couldn't go against God simply to please you.

Only the Old Testament focused on the forgiveness of sins as a path to salvation. That went away and the New Testament became the active covenant when Jesus died on the cross:
Hebrews 8:13 wrote:In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
We must now believe in Jesus Christ to inherit eternal life.

Upon creating a New Testament, the first covenant became the old inactive covenant.

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Re: THE TRUE BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION

Post #20

Post by Eddie Ramos »

Diogenes wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 10:09 pm
Eddie Ramos wrote: Tue Aug 02, 2022 5:48 am
"My first question, to those who hold to this method (or any method you described above) is, can you provide any scripture that teaches this method as the correct method of biblical interpretation?"
To use an analogy your question asks,
"Why cannot a man stuck in a bog pull himself out of the muck by firmly grasping his own boot straps?"
Thanks for your reply, but my question was pretty straightforward and very reasonable given the importance of proper interpretation. Your reply below helps to demonstrate just how important the correct biblical interpretation method actually is.
Diogenes wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 10:09 pm A second problem your post glosses over... or rather, completely ignores, is that the canon is composed of many books by many different authors, most anonymous.
Please see my response to this in post #14 ot his thread: viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39526&start=10 which teaches that no man is the author of any part of the Bible, there is only one author, God. All others were merely scribes, tools which God used. This is why the scriptures tell us that all of scripture is God breathed, which means it comes from the very mouth of God. The post I linked above provided plenty of scriptural examples.
Diogenes wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 10:09 pm Some, like Job are obviously plays, not to be taken literally. Others are polemics, arguments. Still others are poetry. Some are intended as history. Yet you want to impose a single "interpretation" that somehow should fit each genre. This is a fool's errand, not to mention an attempt at poor scholarship.
I would love to know who told you that the book of Job was a play. But what I do know is that you didn't get that idea from the Bible itself. Instead, you're trusting in someone else's "wisdom" (or perhaps even your own) to make and believe such determinations. This is what happens when we step outside of the Bible to understand the Bible. The book of Psalms, we know, contains songs, because the bible tells us so. But whether a part of scripture is a song, or actual history, or parables, it's all scriptures. And what does the Bible tells us about developing correct doctrine? That it must come from all of scripture.

2 Timothy 3:16 (KJV 1900)
16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:


This means that there is no part of scripture that is irrelevant when it comes to developing correct doctrines. And no where in the Bible does God suggest that a separate method of interpretation is required for each "genre". God only has one method for His entire Word. And when this method is actually used, it leads us to correct doctrines as we compare all of scripture together and seek for harmony within its pages. Only then can we be sure that we've arrived at a correct understanding of a particular subject.

The fools errand would actually be to see what all the reputable scholars have to say and use their methods over the Bible's. So, I will ask once more, and since you believe that each "genre" must have a different type of interpretation, then please pick any "genre" you want and show from the scriptures how God intends for us to interpret it. If you can't, then where are the methods that you're trusting in coming from?

Jeremiah 17:5 (KJV 1900)
5 Thus saith the LORD; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD.


Proverbs 3:5–6 (KJV 1900)

5  Trust in the LORD with all thine heart;
And lean not unto thine own understanding.
6  In all thy ways acknowledge him,
And he shall direct thy paths.

2 Timothy 2:7 (KJV 1900)
7 Consider what I say; and the Lord give thee understanding in all things.

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