Is all of the Bible written to us

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Peterlag
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Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #1

Post by Peterlag »

I do not know why we have so many Christians who believe the entire Bible is written directly to them, the Church of God. There is nothing in the Bible to indicate such thinking, and I would like to add nothing could be further from the truth. It's true the Word of God was written for everyone for all time, and it's for our learning because it contains what everyone should know. That does not mean every part of it is addressed to everyone in this time, because the subject matter was written either to the Jews, to the Gentiles, or to the Church of God (1 Corinthians 10:32).

To rightly understand the Word of God, one must understand what part is written to the Church of God and what part is written for the learning of the Church. Every word from Genesis 1:1, to Revelation 22:21, is written for our learning. However, not all of the words from Genesis 1:1, to Revelation 22:21, are addressed to us. We must learn to distinguish not only the various people, but also the different time periods God has spoken to if we want to understand the written Word of God. The time God spoke to the children of Israel is not the same time period He has spoken to us. The time He spoke to the prophets in the time of the Old Testament is not the same time period He spoke to His Son Jesus Christ in the time of the gospels.

Administrations must be adapted to the time periods in which they are carried out. The administration with Adam before the fall was different from the one with his immediate family after the fall. The administration with Israel “under the law” was carried out on different principles from the present administration of Grace. This present administration is different from the one that will characterize the return of Christ. The administration of Judgment will be different from the one that will belong to the administration of Glory, when all things shall be gathered together in one under the headship of Christ.

We will never understand the truth of God’s Word if we neglect to rightly divide the subject matter. As far as we are concerned in this Grace administration, what happened to Israel in the Old Testament was written for our learning. If we do not rightly divide to whom it's addressed—the Jew, Gentile, or the Church of God, we will use one truth to contradict another truth, and we will use what is true for one group in contrast to what is also true for another group.

These different administrations are suited to different times because God has spoken everything to its proper time and administration. We will never understand the truth of God’s Word if we read into one administration what God tells us belongs to another administration. If we believe what God said in one administration and carry it into another administration that was on a different principle, we will be taking what is true for one time, and using it to contradict what is also true for another time. When we mix them all together, by jumbling the whole Bible together: Law, Gospel, Grace, Judgment, Glory, Jew, Gentile, and the Church of God, we will be very confused in our understanding of the truth of God’s Word.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #11

Post by 1213 »

Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 10:00 am ...
The present administration of God is in the time period of the New Testament known as Grace. It deals with the new covenant, and it belongs to the time that is called the administration of the mystery. ... ...What was written to those who lived under the Law administration is the complete opposite of what is written to us who live under the Grace administration.
...
Sorry, I disagree with that. I don't think there really is opposite teaching in the Bible. The difference between new and old covenant is that in the new one, the law is written in persons heart. But God's law is still the same.

For finding fault with them, he said, "Behold, the days come," says the Lord, "That I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah; Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers, In the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; For they didn't continue in my covenant, And I disregarded them," says the Lord. "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel. After those days," says the Lord; "I will put my laws into their mind, I will also write them on their heart. I will be to them a God, And they will be to me a people. They will not teach every man his fellow citizen, Every man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,' For all will know me, From the least of them to the greatest of them. For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness. I will remember their sins and lawless deeds no more."
Hebrews 8:8-12 (Jeremiah 31:31-34)

I think your idea of "administration of mystery" is not Biblical.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #12

Post by Peterlag »

2timothy316 wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 12:37 pm
Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 9:58 am
2timothy316 wrote: Wed Aug 10, 2022 10:31 pm
Peterlag wrote: Wed Aug 10, 2022 10:31 am I do not know why we have so many Christians who believe the entire Bible is written directly to them, the Church of God. There is nothing in the Bible to indicate such thinking, and I would like to add nothing could be further from the truth.
2 Timothy 3:16, 17
"All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work."
Isn't a 'man of God' a Christian? Thus all scripture was made for them to teach, reprove, set things straight, and discipline themselves, right?

Is the world using the Bible to do all of these things? The USA? United Kingdom? China? Russia? United Nations? What group is using the Bible to do all of these things?
That all Scripture that you quote from 2 Timothy 3:16 is not addressed to the Christian. What is written directly to the Jews, belongs to and is for the Jews.
It doesn't say it's written for the Jews. It says that it's written for 'men of God'. Are you saying that Christians are not people of God?
The different time periods in the Bible are called dispensations. The Greek word for “dispensation” is “oikonomia” meaning the act of administering. The word “o’kos” means house, and “nemo” means to dispense, to weigh or deal out, as a steward or housekeeper. Therefore, the word was used to manage or administrate a household. The word is used three times in Luke 16:2-4, where it's translated “stewardship.” In four other places it's translated “dispensation.” I like the word administration because it communicates very well with our current English language. We must understand these administrations have different time periods in the Bible and each have their own beginning and their own ending—with the exception of the last one.

The first is called the Paradise administration. It was the time of innocence, the time before the fall that ends with Adam and Eve being expelled from the garden of the original paradise.

The second is the Patriarchal administration. It was the time after the fall from the Garden of Eden, but before the Law was given. This second administration ended with the coming of the Law to Moses.

The third is the Legal administration. It's suited only to Israel under the Law, and is sometimes called the Mosaic Law that terminated when Jesus Christ died.

The fourth is the Christ administration that overlapped and functioned within the Law administration. Both the Law and the Christ administration officially ended with the coming of Pentecost.

The fifth started on the day of Pentecost as recorded in the second chapter of the book of Acts. This is the present administration of Grace that is for the Church of God. It's the time period you and I now belong to because it's the Grace administration, without any distinction made between the Jew and the Gentile, which will end with the appearing of Jesus Christ.

The sixth begins with the appearing of Jesus Christ, and the gathering together of the saints. Believe it or not, this administration ends with Satan destroyed, and the great white throne judgment.

The seventh is the Glory or Paradise administration, which will not have an ending.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #13

Post by Peterlag »

1213 wrote: Fri Aug 12, 2022 4:53 am
Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 10:00 am ...
The present administration of God is in the time period of the New Testament known as Grace. It deals with the new covenant, and it belongs to the time that is called the administration of the mystery. ... ...What was written to those who lived under the Law administration is the complete opposite of what is written to us who live under the Grace administration.
...
Sorry, I disagree with that. I don't think there really is opposite teaching in the Bible. The difference between new and old covenant is that in the new one, the law is written in persons heart. But God's law is still the same.

For finding fault with them, he said, "Behold, the days come," says the Lord, "That I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah; Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers, In the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; For they didn't continue in my covenant, And I disregarded them," says the Lord. "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel. After those days," says the Lord; "I will put my laws into their mind, I will also write them on their heart. I will be to them a God, And they will be to me a people. They will not teach every man his fellow citizen, Every man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,' For all will know me, From the least of them to the greatest of them. For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness. I will remember their sins and lawless deeds no more."
Hebrews 8:8-12 (Jeremiah 31:31-34)

I think your idea of "administration of mystery" is not Biblical.
It is not my idea. It's been around for many years and has been taught all over the world.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #14

Post by Tcg »

Peterlag wrote: Fri Aug 12, 2022 8:05 am
1213 wrote: Fri Aug 12, 2022 4:53 am
Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 10:00 am ...
The present administration of God is in the time period of the New Testament known as Grace. It deals with the new covenant, and it belongs to the time that is called the administration of the mystery. ... ...What was written to those who lived under the Law administration is the complete opposite of what is written to us who live under the Grace administration.
...
Sorry, I disagree with that. I don't think there really is opposite teaching in the Bible. The difference between new and old covenant is that in the new one, the law is written in persons heart. But God's law is still the same.

For finding fault with them, he said, "Behold, the days come," says the Lord, "That I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah; Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers, In the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; For they didn't continue in my covenant, And I disregarded them," says the Lord. "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel. After those days," says the Lord; "I will put my laws into their mind, I will also write them on their heart. I will be to them a God, And they will be to me a people. They will not teach every man his fellow citizen, Every man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,' For all will know me, From the least of them to the greatest of them. For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness. I will remember their sins and lawless deeds no more."
Hebrews 8:8-12 (Jeremiah 31:31-34)

I think your idea of "administration of mystery" is not Biblical.
It is not my idea. It's been around for many years and has been taught all over the world.
Yes, and not originated by but popularized by C. I. Scofield in his pamphlet "Rightly Dividing the Word of Truth" and his study Bible. Of course, we know however that neither the popularity nor the age of any teaching determines its truth.


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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #15

Post by 2timothy316 »

[Replying to Peterlag in post #12]

“God is not partial, but in every nation the man that fears him and works righteousness is acceptable to him.”—Acts 10:34, 35

There are the people who the Bible was written for.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #16

Post by 2timothy316 »

Peterlag wrote: Fri Aug 12, 2022 8:05 am
1213 wrote: Fri Aug 12, 2022 4:53 am
Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 10:00 am ...
The present administration of God is in the time period of the New Testament known as Grace. It deals with the new covenant, and it belongs to the time that is called the administration of the mystery. ... ...What was written to those who lived under the Law administration is the complete opposite of what is written to us who live under the Grace administration.
...
Sorry, I disagree with that. I don't think there really is opposite teaching in the Bible. The difference between new and old covenant is that in the new one, the law is written in persons heart. But God's law is still the same.

For finding fault with them, he said, "Behold, the days come," says the Lord, "That I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah; Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers, In the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; For they didn't continue in my covenant, And I disregarded them," says the Lord. "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel. After those days," says the Lord; "I will put my laws into their mind, I will also write them on their heart. I will be to them a God, And they will be to me a people. They will not teach every man his fellow citizen, Every man his brother, saying, 'Know the Lord,' For all will know me, From the least of them to the greatest of them. For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness. I will remember their sins and lawless deeds no more."
Hebrews 8:8-12 (Jeremiah 31:31-34)

I think your idea of "administration of mystery" is not Biblical.
It is not my idea. It's been around for many years and has been taught all over the world.
How long something has been taught and the number of places doesn't make it right.
Yet 1213 is right, it''s not Biblical. It is man-made.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #17

Post by Miles »

Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 9:53 am
Miles wrote: Wed Aug 10, 2022 2:43 pm
Peterlag wrote: Wed Aug 10, 2022 10:31 am I do not know why we have so many Christians who believe the entire Bible is written directly to them, the Church of God.
Are you talking specifically about The Church of God, headquartered in Cleveland, Tennessee, United States, and is a Holiness Pentecostal Christian denomination? If so, their global membership of 7 million members in 2020 is a drop in the bucket compared to the 2.3 billion total Christians estimated in 2019, and, as I see it, not worth the bother.

.
I would like to point out that when I use the word “church” I am using it the way it's used in the Bible, and I am not referring to any religion, denomination, or building. The word “church” comes from the Greek word “ecclesia” and it means assembly, or a congregation of called out ones, such as Israel who was an “ecclesia” or an assembly of people called out from among the rest of the world. The word is also used of a smaller company of Israelites, called out from among an assembly of Israel, which was the tribal council of Simeen and Levi. Later in the same time period we find it used for another kind of an assembly, referring to those who were called-out from all of Israel as worshippers assembling themselves together before the Temple. In the time period covered by the gospels, the called out ones are “the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”

The word “church” in the epistles acquires a meaning it never had before, which started when the disciples were separated away from the unbelief of Israel, and that caused the word “ecclesia” to acquire a more restricted meaning because it was then used for “The Church of God.” The Church of God is an assembly composed of not only the Jews, but also anyone able to be born into the family of God and become a member of the body of Christ. This special usage of the word “ecclesia” deals with an assembling of people, who were not known until they were first revealed to the apostle Paul as part of the secret that was “hid in God” and was “kept secret since the world began.”
Whatever. Just keep in mind that when you write "the Church of God" it can also in indicate the 7 million member Church of God, that's headquartered in Cleveland, Tennessee, United State.

.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #18

Post by Eddie Ramos »

Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 10:03 am What is written directly to the Jews, belongs to and is for the Jews. What is written directly to the Gentiles, belongs to and is for the Gentiles. What is written directly to the Church of God, belongs to and is for the Church of God. What does God mean when He tells us that the visions shown to Isaiah was concerning Judah and Jerusalem? It was not addressed to us or written concerning us, but it was addressed to and concerning Judah and Jerusalem. It would be dishonest for the Church of God to interpret to the Church of God what God said concerns Israel.
But what do you do when the Bible disagrees with your above statement? Do you make correction to your entire doctrine or do you stick by your words as truth rather than what the scriptures show us is actually true? The Bible teaches us that what was written to the Jews has spiritual application to us today. Let's take a look at what happens when God takes us by the hand and teaches us this amazing truth.

Deuteronomy 25:4 (KJV 1900)
Thou shalt not muzzle the ox when he treadeth out the corn.

This law is one of many apparently random Old Testament laws, with no context before or after it. Nevertheless, the Jews of old had to obey it for hundreds of years. But what if I told you that this law wasn't given for the benefit of the oxen, but rather to have Israel of old go through the motions of obeying this law because God was hiding a spiritual truth that he wouldn't reveal until he addresses the New Testament church. And when he finally does, we can see this.

1 Corinthians 9:8–11 (KJV 1900)
Say I these things as a man? or saith not the law the same also? 9 For it is written in the law of Moses, Thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen? 10 Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope. 11 If we have sown unto you spiritual things, is it a great thing if we shall reap your carnal things?


So, here we learn multiple truths that completely contradict your initial statement. We see that this historical law, specifically given tot he Jews of old, was actually "sown" (hundreds of years ago) as a spiritual truth for the New Testament church. And of course, only God, as the author of the scriptures, could write His Word in such a parabolic way as to completely fool those who cannot see spiritual truths in His Word, but rather approach the Bible with their own logic and claim to have made perfect sense of how it must be approached (even if they cannot provide a single piece of scripture which teaches them to do so).

So, what spiritual truth (specifically designed for the reader of today) did that specific historical law conceal? God answers:

1 Corinthians 9:14 (KJV 1900)
Even so (meaning "in the manner of the law that was given") hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel.


In other words, just as God's law forbade the muzzling of a working ox that was being used to harvest the cornfield, it spiritually pointed to the fact that by that old testament law given specifically to Israel of old, that God also ordained that those who preach the gospel should live of the gospel.

This is one example of many where God does the same thing in taking us by the hand and showing us that the Old Testament laws, specifically addressed to Israel of old, have spiritual relevance to us today. This is also why 2 Timothy 3:16 isn't being factored into your equation of how we are to approach the scriptures. As a matter of fact, by your statement, 95% of the Old Testament is no longer relevant to us today and the same with the New Testament, as every letter written to the New Testament churches, were specifically written to those churches, about 2,000 years ago. It doesn't even matter how illogical that even sounds because the Bible is what guides us to know what the actual truth is, no matter what someone claims to be true. And the deeper we search, the more evidence surfaces that every piece of scripture has as much relevance to us today as the day it was penned. But if you are not able to see nor acknowledge the fact that the Bible is so much more than just a history book, but rather a spiritual book with spiritual truths concealed within the historical text, then you have missed what the Bible calls the "strong meat" of the word.

Hebrews 5:12–14 (KJV 1900)
For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat. 13 For every one that useth milk is unskilful in the word of righteousness: for he is a babe. 14 But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age (perfect), even those who by reason of use have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil.


The milk of the word is the basic knowledge you can glean from the Bible. God uses the word "milk" to describe what a baby needs to live. But as that baby grows physically (much like someone who claims to be a true child of God is supposed to grow spiritually) the time must come when that baby can no longer live on milk only, but leaves the milk and moves on to what the Bible calls "strong meat", which are the deeper spiritual truths that God has concealed within the plain historical text. The problem is that even though someone claims to be a child of God and has spent years of their life in God's Word, if they are not truly a child of God, then they will always remain on the milk of the word, which means that he is unskilful in the Word of righteousness. Thus, strong meat cannot be given to spiritual babes because they will only reject it, as they much prefer to stay on the milk.

1 Corinthians 3:1–2 (KJV 1900)
And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ. 2 I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able.


Isaiah 28:9–10 (KJV 1900)
Whom shall he teach knowledge?
And whom shall he make to understand doctrine?
Them that are weaned from the milk,
And drawn from the breasts.
10  For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept;
Line upon line, line upon line;
Here a little, and there a little:


Anything you believe to be true about the Bible is your doctrine. And it is impossible to arrive at a correct doctrine with logic that comes from outside the Bible. I hope you find this helpful.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #19

Post by Peterlag »

Eddie Ramos wrote: Fri Aug 12, 2022 11:21 pm
Peterlag wrote: Thu Aug 11, 2022 10:03 am What is written directly to the Jews, belongs to and is for the Jews. What is written directly to the Gentiles, belongs to and is for the Gentiles. What is written directly to the Church of God, belongs to and is for the Church of God. What does God mean when He tells us that the visions shown to Isaiah was concerning Judah and Jerusalem? It was not addressed to us or written concerning us, but it was addressed to and concerning Judah and Jerusalem. It would be dishonest for the Church of God to interpret to the Church of God what God said concerns Israel.
But what do you do when the Bible disagrees with your above statement? Do you make correction to your entire doctrine or do you stick by your words as truth rather than what the scriptures show us is actually true? The Bible teaches us that what was written to the Jews has spiritual application to us today. Let's take a look at what happens when God takes us by the hand and teaches us this amazing truth.

Deuteronomy 25:4 (KJV 1900)
Thou shalt not muzzle the ox when he treadeth out the corn.

This law is one of many apparently random Old Testament laws, with no context before or after it. Nevertheless, the Jews of old had to obey it for hundreds of years. But what if I told you that this law wasn't given for the benefit of the oxen, but rather to have Israel of old go through the motions of obeying this law because God was hiding a spiritual truth that he wouldn't reveal until he addresses the New Testament church. And when he finally does, we can see this.

1 Corinthians 9:8–11 (KJV 1900)
Say I these things as a man? or saith not the law the same also? 9 For it is written in the law of Moses, Thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen? 10 Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope. 11 If we have sown unto you spiritual things, is it a great thing if we shall reap your carnal things?


So, here we learn multiple truths that completely contradict your initial statement. We see that this historical law, specifically given tot he Jews of old, was actually "sown" (hundreds of years ago) as a spiritual truth for the New Testament church. And of course, only God, as the author of the scriptures, could write His Word in such a parabolic way as to completely fool those who cannot see spiritual truths in His Word, but rather approach the Bible with their own logic and claim to have made perfect sense of how it must be approached (even if they cannot provide a single piece of scripture which teaches them to do so).

So, what spiritual truth (specifically designed for the reader of today) did that specific historical law conceal? God answers:

1 Corinthians 9:14 (KJV 1900)
Even so (meaning "in the manner of the law that was given") hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel.


In other words, just as God's law forbade the muzzling of a working ox that was being used to harvest the cornfield, it spiritually pointed to the fact that by that old testament law given specifically to Israel of old, that God also ordained that those who preach the gospel should live of the gospel.

This is one example of many where God does the same thing in taking us by the hand and showing us that the Old Testament laws, specifically addressed to Israel of old, have spiritual relevance to us today. This is also why 2 Timothy 3:16 isn't being factored into your equation of how we are to approach the scriptures. As a matter of fact, by your statement, 95% of the Old Testament is no longer relevant to us today and the same with the New Testament, as every letter written to the New Testament churches, were specifically written to those churches, about 2,000 years ago. It doesn't even matter how illogical that even sounds because the Bible is what guides us to know what the actual truth is, no matter what someone claims to be true. And the deeper we search, the more evidence surfaces that every piece of scripture has as much relevance to us today as the day it was penned. But if you are not able to see nor acknowledge the fact that the Bible is so much more than just a history book, but rather a spiritual book with spiritual truths concealed within the historical text, then you have missed what the Bible calls the "strong meat" of the word.

Hebrews 5:12–14 (KJV 1900)
For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat. 13 For every one that useth milk is unskilful in the word of righteousness: for he is a babe. 14 But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age (perfect), even those who by reason of use have their senses exercised to discern both good and evil.


The milk of the word is the basic knowledge you can glean from the Bible. God uses the word "milk" to describe what a baby needs to live. But as that baby grows physically (much like someone who claims to be a true child of God is supposed to grow spiritually) the time must come when that baby can no longer live on milk only, but leaves the milk and moves on to what the Bible calls "strong meat", which are the deeper spiritual truths that God has concealed within the plain historical text. The problem is that even though someone claims to be a child of God and has spent years of their life in God's Word, if they are not truly a child of God, then they will always remain on the milk of the word, which means that he is unskilful in the Word of righteousness. Thus, strong meat cannot be given to spiritual babes because they will only reject it, as they much prefer to stay on the milk.

1 Corinthians 3:1–2 (KJV 1900)
And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ. 2 I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able.


Isaiah 28:9–10 (KJV 1900)
Whom shall he teach knowledge?
And whom shall he make to understand doctrine?
Them that are weaned from the milk,
And drawn from the breasts.
10  For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept;
Line upon line, line upon line;
Here a little, and there a little:


Anything you believe to be true about the Bible is your doctrine. And it is impossible to arrive at a correct doctrine with logic that comes from outside the Bible. I hope you find this helpful.
Deuteronomy 25:4 (KJV 1900)
Thou shalt not muzzle the ox when he treadeth out the corn.
and...
1 Corinthians 9:8–11 (KJV 1900)

Fit's perfectly in what I wrote in the first part of this OP. That it's true the Word of God was written for everyone for all time, and it's for our learning because it contains what everyone should know. That does not mean every part of it is addressed to everyone in this time, because the subject matter was written either to the Jews, to the Gentiles, or to the Church of God. Again for our learning and not addressed to us.

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Re: Is all of the Bible written to us

Post #20

Post by Eddie Ramos »

Peterlag wrote: Sat Aug 13, 2022 10:40 am Deuteronomy 25:4 (KJV 1900)
Thou shalt not muzzle the ox when he treadeth out the corn.
and...
1 Corinthians 9:8–11 (KJV 1900)

Fit's perfectly in what I wrote in the first part of this OP. That it's true the Word of God was written for everyone for all time, and it's for our learning because it contains what everyone should know. That does not mean every part of it is addressed to everyone in this time, because the subject matter was written either to the Jews, to the Gentiles, or to the Church of God. Again for our learning and not addressed to us.
Again, it would be most helpful even necessary for you to show from the scriptures where you are getting this hermeneutic from. At least this way there can be no argument because you can show everyone where your authority comes from in this matter by using the Bible.

Because, as I showed you from the same Bible, that Old Testament law had more application for the people of the New Testament that it did for those to whom it was first given. Israel of old was just going through the motions by keeping that law (along withevery other). But the spiritual truth within it, was "sown" for us today. This is the way the Bible was written. This is what makes the Old Testament more relevant to us today that to whom it was first given.

[i]1 Corinthians 10:11 (KJV)
Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.[/i]

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