Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:53 am
historia wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:20 am
Kylie wrote: ↑Tue Sep 06, 2022 9:27 pm
historia wrote: ↑Mon Sep 05, 2022 12:51 pm
I suspect that many, if not most, people haven't given much thought to issues of epistemology, so asking them to assess whether their beliefs on a controversial issue somehow constitute knowledge or not isn't going to tell us much about their position on that controversial issue.
Oh come on, it's not that hard. You are just asking them, "Do you consider that you KNOW this to be true, or not?"
It's easy to ask the question. The hard part is that you're going to get incongruent answers in return. Consider the fact that you have yourself used the term "knowledge" in at least three different (conflicting) ways just in the course of our conversation.
And yet the only one that matters for my purposes here is whether the person being asked what their beliefs is claims to KNOW that they are right, or if they do not make such a claim.
So, if someone says that they "know that God exists" because they "just feel that it must be true," would you classify them as a "gnostic theist" because they used the word "know" in this loose sense?
Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:53 am
historia wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:20 am
Kylie wrote: ↑Tue Sep 06, 2022 9:27 pm
Carroll wrote:
The young Wittgenstein would not admit to Bertrand Russell that there was not a rhinoceros in the room, because he couldn’t be absolutely sure (in the sense of logical proof) that his senses weren’t tricking him. But the later Wittgenstein understood that taking such a purist stance renders the notion of "to know" (or "to believe") completely useless. If logical proof were required, we would only believe logical truths — and even then the proofs might contain errors. But in the real world it makes perfect sense to believe much more than that. So we take "I believe x" to mean, not "I can prove x is the case," but "it would be unreasonable to doubt x."
By this logic, we can't know anything at all.
Yeah, that's nearly the
opposite of what Carroll is saying here.
Seems quite clear to me that "The young Wittgenstein would not admit to Bertrand Russell that there was not a rhinoceros in the room, because he couldn’t be absolutely sure (in the sense of logical proof) that his senses weren’t tricking him," is that Wittgenstein was saying that he couldn't KNOW FOR A FACT that there wasn't a rhino because his senses might be tricking him. That same argument can apply to EVBERYTHING. I do not KNOW that I am writing a reply to your post, because my senses might be tricking me. I do not KNOW that I am a Human, because my senses might be tricking me. Thus, it is saying that we can't KNOW anything.
Right, you understood the first sentence perfectly. Don't stop there, though. The very next sentence says:
Carroll wrote:
But the later Wittgenstein understood that taking such a purist stance renders the notion of "to know" (or "to believe") completely useless.
As he got older, Wittgenstein realized what you just realized: If we define knowledge as being 100% certain about something, then we can't "know" anything, since we can
never be 100% certain about things. There is always a possibility, however remote, that our senses deceive us.
And so Wittgenstein later
rejected his previous position, and Carroll is urging us to do the same. We don't have to be 100% certain to know or believe things. So when someone rhetorically asks "what is knowledge if not something that you are 100% certain about?" tell them that that definition creates serious epistemological problems.
Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:53 am
Just as Wittgenstein could have said, "While I lack the belief that there is a rhino in this room, I would NOT say that I believe that this room lacks Rhinos," I will say that I lack belief in God, yet I do not claim to know that there are no Gods.
I appreciate the fact that you see the connection between the young Wittgenstein's position and your own here, as it makes my job easier.
If by "know" here you mean "being 100% certain" then you are using a definition of knowledge that, if applied consistently, would lead you to the conclusion (as you just recognized above) that you can't "know" anything. Wittgenstein eventually rejected that naive definition of knowledge, and you should too.
Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:53 am
As I have stated many times, there is a big difference between "I have no belief in X" and "I have a belief in no X." Yet you are asking me to consider the two equal.
Not at all. I'm simply pointing out that you don't have to be 100% certain to affirm a proposition.
If you are just as sure that there is no God as you are that there isn't an elephant in your front yard, then that is a pretty high level of certainty! There is no good reason, then, for you to not accept the proposition that God doesn't exist.
Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:53 am
historia wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:20 am
Kylie wrote: ↑Tue Sep 06, 2022 9:27 pm
And your system does not actual describe the difference between the two people I spoke of, it just lumps them together under the same umbrella, despite the fact that the difference between their positions is, I'd say, fairly important. Yet my system describes this easily.
It does? Here are the two positions again:
Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 03, 2022 11:36 pm
There's a person who thinks that the issue of God's existence is inherently unknowable. They claim to KNOW that God's existence is always going to be unknowable. There's another person who, similarly, can't say if God exists or not, but they do NOT think that God's existence is inherently unknowable.
On the scheme you are proposing, wouldn't both of these positions be described as "agnostic atheist"?
No.
Both people would be in the middle of the theist/atheist axis, while one would be on the positive side of the gnosticism axis and the other would be on the negative side.
In the following chart, the first person would be towards the top center, and the second person would be towards the bottom center.
That doesn't make sense.
Both people don't believe in God, right? So surely they would be classified as "atheist" in your scheme. Neither claims to know that God does not exist, right? So then they must be "agnostic atheist" in your scheme. In other words, your scheme "just lumps them together under the same umbrella."
Even if we accept your (frankly rather labored) explanation here that these two positions somehow fall on the axes themselves, and so don't get assigned any of the four labels, that would mean that your scheme has no description (no label) for these positions, and so doesn't "describe" them at all, let alone "easily."
Kylie wrote: ↑Sat Sep 10, 2022 2:53 am
I think the issue of WHY a person holds the particular belief they hold is an important one. As I've said, I think there's a big difference between an [a]theist who is an atheist because they were never raised to be a believer and an atheist who is an atheist because they used to be a believer and then critically examined the arguments for and against and gave up their faith.
Okay, but your scheme doesn't capture this distinction either.