WHAT WAS THE REQUIREMENT FOR CHRIST TO BE DECLARED THE SON OF GOD?

[Eddie Ramos]

The Bible tells us that Christ was declared to be the Son of God after completing one specific task, after raising from the dead.

Romans 1:4 (KJV 1900)
And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by (meaning THROUGH) the resurrection from the dead:

This passage is extremely interesting because we notice that Christ was declared to be the Son of God even from his conception as recorded in the gospels.

Luke 1:35 (KJV 1900)
And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Mark 9:7 (KJV 1900)
And there was a cloud that overshadowed them: and a voice came out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him.

Over and over, we see many passages that declare Christ to be the Son of God, but the problem is that if we look to the cross as the only time Christ died and rose again, the he had not yet died nor rose again, yet here he is, being declared to be the Son of God before his death and resurrection. But this is not a problem is we can see that Christ died and rose again from the foundation of the world to pay for sins. Now, at any time throughout the course of the history of the world, Christ could be rightfully declared to be the son of God before the cross of 33 A.D. and we still have perfect harmony with the scriptures.

For those who disagree that Christ died and rose again from the foundation of the world, then the discussion for the O.P. is, can you show from the scriptures how could Christ be declared to be the Son of God, by the resurrection from the dead, if he hadn't died nor rose again till 33 A.D. and yet was indeed declared to be the Son of God throughout his earthly ministry?

[1213]

The Bible tells us that Christ was declared to be the Son of God after completing one specific task, after raising from the dead.

Romans 1:4 (KJV 1900)
And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by (meaning THROUGH) the resurrection from the dead:

This passage is extremely interesting because we notice that Christ was declared to be the Son of God even from his conception as recorded in the gospels.

Luke 1:35 (KJV 1900)
And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Mark 9:7 (KJV 1900)
And there was a cloud that overshadowed them: and a voice came out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him.

Over and over, we see many passages that declare Christ to be the Son of God, but the problem is that if we look to the cross as the only time Christ died and rose again, the he had not yet died nor rose again, yet here he is, being declared to be the Son of God before his death and resurrection. But this is not a problem...

I think it is not a problem, because children of God can be known by this:

He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

[Eddie Ramos]

I think it is not a problem, because children of God can be known by this:

He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

Thanks for the scriptures, but I'm not sure I follow your train of thought with that passage you posted. I see that it's speaking of the children of God and about the Son of God (Christ) and the reason he was revealed (or manifested). When something is "manifested", it's able to be seen. And when it came to Christ, since he died and rose again before anyone even existed, then no ne was here to witness what took place. This is one reason God manifested what he had already accomplished before the world began in Christ.
This passage helps us to understand how God defines the word "manifested" (or "revealed").

1 John 1:2 (KJV 1900)
(For the life (this is Christ, who is the way, the truth and the life) was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life (this again is Christ), which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us)

But before he was manifested, he already died and rose again to pay for sins, and when he arose from the dead, he was declared to be the Son of God. Then the Son of God created the world and at anytime throughout the world's existence, God could forgive the sins of anyone he chose to do so, because all the requirements for forgiveness had been met by Christ. So, when the time came for Christ to be made manifest in the form of a baby, he was already declared to be the Son of God because he had already died and rose from the dead, and was the first to do so (Rev 1:5).

If I misunderstood the point of your reply, then please let me know.

[1213]

...
But before he was manifested, he already died and rose again to pay for sins, and when he arose from the dead, he was declared to be the Son of God. Then the Son of God created the world and at anytime throughout the world's existence, God could forgive the sins of anyone he chose to do so, because all the requirements for forgiveness had been met by Christ. So, when the time came for Christ to be made manifest in the form of a baby, he was already declared to be the Son of God because he had already died and rose from the dead, and was the first to do so (Rev 1:5).

If I misunderstood the point of your reply, then please let me know.

My point was just to show what it means to be a child of God. And I think the same definition is for Jesus also.

And about the forgiveness, I don't think there is really any Biblical reason to think there was some kind of condition for God to forgive sins. God can forgive sins without death.

[Miles]

The Bible tells us that Christ was declared to be the Son of God after completing one specific task, after raising from the dead.

Romans 1:4 (KJV 1900)
And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by (meaning THROUGH) the resurrection from the dead:

This passage is extremely interesting because we notice that Christ was declared to be the Son of God even from his conception as recorded in the gospels.


Over and over, we see many passages that declare Christ to be the Son of God, but the problem is that if we look to the cross as the only time Christ died and rose again, the he had not yet died nor rose again, yet here he is, being declared to be the Son of God before his death and resurrection. But this is not a problem is we can see that Christ died and rose again from the foundation of the world to pay for sins.

So, just where can we read that before Jesus was crucified and resurrected around AD 33 he had previously died and rose from the dead from the foundation of the world? A book, chapter, and verse would be nice.

OR, are you saying that he died and rose from the dead from the foundation of the world After the crucifixion/resurrection event? If so, a book, chapter, and verse would be nice.


.

[Eddie Ramos]

...
But before he was manifested, he already died and rose again to pay for sins, and when he arose from the dead, he was declared to be the Son of God. Then the Son of God created the world and at anytime throughout the world's existence, God could forgive the sins of anyone he chose to do so, because all the requirements for forgiveness had been met by Christ. So, when the time came for Christ to be made manifest in the form of a baby, he was already declared to be the Son of God because he had already died and rose from the dead, and was the first to do so (Rev 1:5).

If I misunderstood the point of your reply, then please let me know.

My point was just to show what it means to be a child of God. And I think the same definition is for Jesus also.

And about the forgiveness, I don't think there is really any Biblical reason to think there was some kind of condition for God to forgive sins. God can forgive sins without death.

I hate to tell you this, but death as a requirement for remission (forgiveness) is probably the most elementary aspect of the whole Bible to be understood. Not sure where you got that idea from, but it sounds similar to the doctrine Muslims hold who don't even use the Bible for their "truth".

Hebrews 9:22 (KJV 1900)
And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.

[Eddie Ramos]

The Bible tells us that Christ was declared to be the Son of God after completing one specific task, after raising from the dead.

Romans 1:4 (KJV 1900)
And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by (meaning THROUGH) the resurrection from the dead:

This passage is extremely interesting because we notice that Christ was declared to be the Son of God even from his conception as recorded in the gospels.


Over and over, we see many passages that declare Christ to be the Son of God, but the problem is that if we look to the cross as the only time Christ died and rose again, the he had not yet died nor rose again, yet here he is, being declared to be the Son of God before his death and resurrection. But this is not a problem is we can see that Christ died and rose again from the foundation of the world to pay for sins.

So, just where can we read that before Jesus was crucified and resurrected around AD 33 he had previously died and rose from the dead from the foundation of the world? A book, chapter, and verse would be nice.

OR, are you saying that he died and rose from the dead from the foundation of the world After the crucifixion/resurrection event? If so, a book, chapter, and verse would be nice.


.

I just answered this to you specifically, in another thread. Please let me know if you have any questions after you read it.

[1213]

...
Hebrews 9:22 (KJV 1900)
And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.

I think that is misunderstood and doesn't mean God can't forgive without blood.

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to Eddie Ramos in post #1]

A SON OF GOD

A son of God is one of Gods creations that reflects His [God's] higher qualities. Romans 1:4 refers to a "spirit begotten" born again son of God is a Christian that had been called to heavenly life after they die.

ROMANS 1:4 NWT

but who with power was declared God’s Son according to the spirit of holiness by means of resurrection from the dead—yes, Jesus Christ our Lord

JW

To learn more please go to other posts related to...

HEAVEN , BORN AGAIN and ... THE 144, 000

[Revelations won]

To Eddie Ramos,

Jesus the Christ is called the "Son of God" simply because he was not only the "first born of all the spirit children of God, but also because he was the only "Begotten son of God in the Flesh.

In other words Elohim or God the Father Is the literal Father of Jesus Christ in the Flesh.

Putting it with a different view: Jesus Christ is the only Legitimate son of God the Father in the flesh.

I also clearly understand that this is in direct opposition to the erroneous and false accusation by the apostate Jews that he was a "bastard child". Their false claim is not based on prophetic revelation from God, but simply a man made accusation and has no evidence and basis in truth. It should also be so noted that their alleged accusation is in direct contradiction and violation of the law as given to Moses.

Kind regards,
RW