I AM HE or I AM?

[MissKate13]

Ego Eimi = I AM
There is no HE. It simply means.I AM.

There are several instances in John where Jesus applies to Himself the same expression that God used at the burning bush: “I AM.” (Exodus 3:14)

(John 8:24). The word “He” is in italics indicating the translators’ insertion. However, in keeping with the theme of John, as well as the immediate context, its insertion is unwarranted and obscures the power of Jesus’ statement. He was, in fact, forthrightly declaring His deity to the hard-hearted Jews by identifying Himself with the same Deity that Moses encountered at the burning bush.

This fact is evident in the context. Three verses later, in John 8:28, Jesus again states I AM. Translators place the “He” in italics.

For a third time, in John 8:58 , Jesus pointedly presses the fact to bring closure to His confrontation: Jesus said to the unbelieving Jews, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”

The Jews correctly understood that Jesus was making a direct claim to Deity, evidenced by the fact that they prepared to execute Him for the capital crime of blasphemy.

In John 4:19, Jesus stresses the same point to the Samaritan woman. The translators again add “He” following “I AM” Jesus was connecting Himself the the “I AM” of the burning bush.

The apostles were gripped by fear for their lives, seeing Jesus walking on the water toward their boat. “But He said to them, ‘It is I; do not be afraid’” (John 6:20). The English reader would likely never know that the words “It is I” are a translation of the Greek ego eimi, “I am.” Undoubtedly, Jesus was again calling attention to His divinity—as indicated by “I AM. Be not afraid.

”On the occasion when Jesus washed the feet of His disciples in John 13:19, He said to them, “Now I tell you before it comes, that when it does come to pass, you may believe that I am He” (John 13:19). The word He was added. Once again, Jesus was deliberately spotlighting His divinity to His disciples by identifying Himself with the burning bush episode. He intended to emphasize to them that they would realize that He is the great “I AM.”

My personal favorite is John 18:4-5. When the mob came to arrest Jesus, He asks, “Whom are you seeking?’ They answered Him, ‘Jesus of Nazareth.’ Jesus said to them, ‘I am He’” (John 18:4-5). Once again, “He” is in italics.

Notice the reaction. They drew back and fell to the ground. Remember, that these soldiers were not Romans. They were Jewish soldiers sent by the chief priests and Pharisees. They were well aware of the import of the expression “I AM.”

Jesus enlisted the use of “I am” in seven additional instances when He offered descriptions of His divine nature, each prefaced by EGO EIM.
1. “I am the Bread of Life” (6:35).
2. “I am the Light of the world” (8:12).
3. “I am the Door” (10:9).
4. “I am the Good Shepherd” (10:4).
5. “I am the Resurrection and the Life” (11:25).
6. “I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life” (14:6).
7. “I am the Vine” (15:5).
In each of these cases, a feature of Jesus’ Person is spotlighted that can only describe deity. No mere human being can rightfully be said to be the Bread of Life, the Light of the world, etc. These glorious affirmations pertain solely to Christ in His divine state.

Insering the word “He” was not only unnecessary, its insertion obscures and softens the force of Jesus’ claim explicitly linking Himself directly to the statement spoken by God to Moses at the burning bush. Indeed, the very heart and core of Christianity is Christ as the divine Son of God. One cannot even be a Christian unless that divinity is orally confessed prior to conversion (Romans 10:9-10).

Unless you believe Jesus when He says EGO EIMI, translated I AM, you will die in your sins.

[tam]

Peace to you MissKate,

POST 2

Earlier you said you were going to respond to the following, so I am re-posting it.

Christ does exist before Abraham, even before the creation of the world, but that does not mean He is [YHWH]. - Tammy

Actually, Christ did not exist before the creation of the world. The Word did - Kate

I don't know why you guys keep making this distinction. This is the same person. Different bodies, but the same person.

The Christ (the Anointed One) or the Messiah (the Chosen One of JAH) is Jaheshua.
Jaheshua is the Word.
Just as He is the Light.
Just as He is the Life.
Just as He is the Holy One of God.

Listen to HIS words on the matter:

And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed. John 17:5

He is speaking of Himself as the One who had glory with His Father before the world existed, is He not?


And isn't Jaheshua both the offspring AND the root of David? Jaheshua, Himself?

“I, [Jesus], have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.” Rev 22:16

Or what about His words here:

“Father, I want those you have given me to be with me where I am, and to see my glory, the glory you have given me because you loved me before the creation of the world. John 17:24

And it is straightforward here in Hebrews 1:

In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe.

Through whom does the author say God made the universe?


And in speaking about Israel after having just left Egypt, Paul said:

They all ate the same spiritual food 4and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ. 1 Corinth 10:3


I just don't understand why you guys are making this distinction between Christ Jaheshua and the Word. Does ANYONE in the NT make this distinction?


Peace again to you.

[tam]

Peace to you,

POST 3

(I think this question got lost)

[Replying to MissKate13 in post #49]

Notice that in each day of creation (days 1-6) the verses say, “AND GOD SAID…”. That is evidence of the Word being in the beginning with God. It was the Word who spoke the world into existence.

Do you think God cannot say something unless it is the Word speaking?


Peace again.

[tam]

Peace to you,

POST 4

Just a question that you did not see or could not answer (I bolded it at the bottom of this post):

Wisdom at Proverbs 8 was given birth, brought forth, formed (or instead of formed it might be translated as set up; anointed; poured out; installed).

Translators use a variety of terms in Proverbs 8:24. The Hebrew word is qanah. It is defined as “to get, acquire” (Strong’s 7069)

I believe you mean Proverbs 8:22.

A different word is used at Proverbs 8:24 (translated as given birth or brought forth).

To grasp how Wisdom can be a person as well as an attribute, just think about how the Life can be both a person (Christ) and a thing; or how a Word can be both a person (Christ) and a thing (words we speak or write or think); or how Truth can be both a person (Christ) or a thing (he spoke 'truth'

I understand the concept, but whether Wisdom in Proverbs 8 is a person or an attribute, one cannot deny that Wisdom is everlasting. Wisdom is the speaker in Proverbs, SHE says, “I have been established from everlasting. (Prov 8:23)

How can a person (or thing) be brought forth or given birth and be eternal at the same time?


Peace to you.

[tam]

Peace to you,

POST 5


No one ever answered the following question(s) either:

Unless you believe Jesus when He says EGO EIMI, translated I AM, you will die in your sins.

What do you think it means 'you will die in your sins'?

If it is something we needed to believe to keep from dying in our sins, don't you think Christ would have told us outright?


But He never claims to be [YHWH] (or part of a trinity). Not once.

He does claim to be the Messiah.

He does claim to be the Son of God.

He does claim to be "the Truth, the Way, the Life, the Resurrection, the Shepherd..."

But He does not once claim to be [YHWH].


He even states that His Father is the One whom the Jews claim as their God (John 8:54).


Peace again to you.

[tam]

Peace to you,


So that is 5 posts with about 5 questions and that is probably enough for now : )

[MissKate13]

[Replying to tam in post #60]

You need to reread my post. I answered the question you asked.

MissKate, do you accept that Christ was the Son of God before a declaration at His resurrection?

I do not accept that Jesus was the Son of God prior to His incarnation. Son of God is a title, which points to divinity. Son of God in the Old Testament is spoken of only in a future sense. The title was bestowed upon Him when He resurrected from the dead.

I repeat: I do not accept that Jesus was the Son of God prior to His incarnation. In other words, prior to His birth around AD 1.

The Son of God is never mentioned in the OT, except in the future sense.

This topic needs its own thread. It is the doctrine of eternal Sonship, which you said you never heard of. Neither did I until recently. I’m still wading my way through the various points from both thos who believe the doctrine, and those who don’t. If you start a thread on the topic, I’ll be happy to participate, but this thread is about a different topic, and I’d prefer to not discuss it here.

[MissKate13]

[Replying to tam in post #60]

You never responded to my post #55. I’d like for you to address it, We need to settle whether or not the Word is eternal. Once we do that, I’ll go through all of your other posts and answer any questions I missed or didn’t have time to answer. However, I don’t want to discuss whether the Son of God is eternal on this thread. It needs its own thread, and it would be good to get other posters involved in the discussion. Are you Ok with that?

[tam]

Peace to you,

I assume from your response in post 67 that you do not intend to answer the other questions I asked, so I will respond to this post and emphasize the question you did not answer:

[Replying to tam in post #60]

You need to reread my post. I answered the question you asked.

MissKate, do you accept that Christ was the Son of God before a declaration at His resurrection?

I do not accept that Jesus was the Son of God prior to His incarnation. Son of God is a title, which points to divinity. Son of God in the Old Testament is spoken of only in a future sense. The title was bestowed upon Him when He resurrected from the dead.

Why do you think this was a title bestowed upon Him only after He resurrected from the dead? He was clearly called the Son (of God) - by God Himself, by Peter, and even He made that claim - all before His resurrection?



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

[tam]

Peace to you,

[Replying to tam in post #60]

You never responded to my post #55. I’d like for you to address it, We need to settle whether or not the Word is eternal. Once we do that, I’ll go through all of your other posts and answer any questions I missed or didn’t have time to answer. However, I don’t want to discuss whether the Son of God is eternal on this thread. It needs its own thread, and it would be good to get other posters involved in the discussion. Are you Ok with that?

MissKate, do you know how many of my posts, points, and questions that you have not responded to? You said you would respond to my thread (that I repeated in post 61) if I answered your question. I answered your question. I think it is fair to expect you to at least do what you said you would do. The posts and questions pertain to the topic you want to settle.



Peace again to you.

[tam]

Peace again to you.

Yes, Christ (Jaheshua) is the Light.

The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. John 1:9, 10

“I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.” John 8:12