a god?

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MissKate13
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a god?

Post #1

Post by MissKate13 »

If the Word was “a god” in John 1:1 because the definite article does not precede the word God, then do JW’s and others also believe that John 1:6, 1:12, 1:13 and 1:18 should also be translated as “a god” since there is no definite article preceding the word God? Shouldn’t the same rule apply in every case?

John 1:6
There was a man sent from God (a god), whose name was John. (Emphasis mine)

John 1:12
But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God (a god), even to them that believe on his name: (Emphasis mine)

John 1:13
Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God (a god). (Emphasis mine)

John 1:18
No man hath seen God (a god) at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. . (Emphasis mine)
”For unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins.” (John 8:24

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onewithhim
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Re: a god?

Post #21

Post by onewithhim »

MissKate13 wrote: Thu Oct 12, 2023 4:45 pm [Replying to onewithhim in post #19]
And this is why I won’t bother wasting time in discussions with you. The first use of God in John 1:1 was never in question. It’s the second use we were discussing. The excuse used for translating it “a god” is because there is no definite article. There is no definite article preceding the verses I’ve provided repeatedly. If you see the non-application of the rule used to translate John 1:1 in John 1:6, 1:12, 1:13 and 1:18 as “splitting hairs,” then you are in denial. You are as inconsistent as your beloved NWT.

I’m done. I pray someday you’ll see the light.
You obviously didn't look at post #15 where it is explained that there are many other translations besides the NWT that render John 1:1 as "a god." You are indeed splitting hairs when you ignore all that and then go after words that are depending on the context to translate them. In John 1:1 there has to be a difference in the article placement so that the two "gods" can be differentiated. The first god is the only true God so there is an article there, to differentiate that "god" from the second "god" which has no article because this god is not the only true God. Very simple. In other verses there is no article before the only true God because the context shows that it is the only true God that is being referred to. There needs to be no differentiation.

I am done as well. You won't even read posts that contribute to the discussion. Fare thee well.

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