How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

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How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #1

Post by otseng »

From the On the Bible being inerrant thread:
nobspeople wrote: Wed Sep 22, 2021 9:42 amHow can you trust something that's written about god that contradictory, contains errors and just plain wrong at times? Is there a logical way to do so, or do you just want it to be god's word so much that you overlook these things like happens so often through the history of christianity?
otseng wrote: Wed Sep 22, 2021 7:08 am The Bible can still be God's word, inspired, authoritative, and trustworthy without the need to believe in inerrancy.
For debate:
How can the Bible be considered authoritative and inspired without the need to believe in the doctrine of inerrancy?

While debating, do not simply state verses to say the Bible is inspired or trustworthy.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #3551

Post by Masterblaster »

Hello Mae von H

You say - "I do not see a way out of this dilemma, for the believer.“ The way out is to do the teachings of Jesus and then that one will know the truth. That is the way out. The scriptures useful for correction, teaching and training in doing right. Use it for anything else and there are difficulties."

-----
I completely agree with you.
If it is not broke do not fix it.
Thank You
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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #3552

Post by Athetotheist »

[Replying to otseng in post #3546
The question is know or understand what? At a minimum, they knew an ark was being built. Most likely it was just a subject of mocking. The very idea of some flood that needed to be saved from was ridiculous in everybody else's minds. So, they just continued on with what they've normally been doing - eating, drinking, marrying, and reveling.
And having babies. That would have been part of what they had normally been doing.
I think what it refers to was nobody understood what the flood would be like. It was totally beyond anybody's guess of how catastrophic it was.
You have nothing but thin air from which to pull that conclusion. In the context of their continued eating, drinking, marrying, reveling and [by extension] baby-making, they don't suspect a thing.

As for peer reviewed articles on the flood, I agree there aren't any. But even if there are peer reviewed articles on the flood in secular journals, would it even matter? Highly doubtful. There are many peer reviewed articles on the Shroud of Turin, and skeptics still reject the Shroud.
That's because, as with the case of the flood, there's so much evidence against it.

How can babies be warned? If babies are "warned", can they understand it?
That's exactly the point. They couldn't have understood, so they couldn't have been warned.
So it would then be the parent's responsibility since they were warned.
But the kids are still babies, so they still can't receive a warning.

The issue is what is the same as now and back during the flood. Would it be the timing of it? No, there was a 120-year timing for the flood and there is no timing for Jesus's return.
What's supposed to be the same is right there in the text: the eating, the drinking, the marrying, the reveling.....the general disbelief in the warning.
What I believe is the same is the mocking and rejection of anything bad really going to happen to people during the day of judgment. "Jesus is not coming back, look at all these false predictions of his return. There is no judgment. There is no hell. There is no God. Even if there is a God, God will let me in because I'm a good person."
Would anyone with that attitude be able to warn their week-old baby of anything just before it happened?

What I claim God is like is what is described in the Bible and no more. Anything beyond that is either speculation or a strawman.
Why can't a Muslim claim the same thing about how the Quran describes Allah just as legitimately?


You still deflect to "skeptics". That doesn't address any issue I'm bringing up.
What issue have you brought up that I haven't addressed?
You don't address any of my issues by deflecting to "skeptics". That's the point I was making.


And you contradict your earlier statement that everyone is instilled with objective morality by virtue of being made in God's image.
Don't see how I contradicted myself. I'm simply making a claim on my position (everyone has objective morality) and defending it. The contradiction is for anybody who don't have a justification for objective morality and then claim they do have it since I claim all people have objective morality.
"Jusification" of objective morality is irrelevant. If everyone has objective morality, then everyone's morality is just as objective as yours. The contradiction is when you accuse skeptics----and non-biblical theists like myself----of having "no justification" for our objective morality and then use that as an excuse to dismiss our objectively moral findings as just our "opinion".

Actually, without the flood happening, we would not be where we are today. There would be no computers or airplanes or cars or even cooking on stoves. We would never get beyond using wood to provide fuel for anything. So, strangely, it was a huge blessing to humanity to actually have a global flood.
You're going to have to paint a picture for me as to how a global deluge would be necessary for the advent of our modern appliances.

I don't believe in Ussher's dates
His dates are the Bible's dates.
and I don't see how that figure was calculated.
"Ussher began his calculation by adding the ages of the twenty-one generations of people of the Hebrew-derived Old Testament, beginning with Adam and Eve. If the Bible is to be believed, they were an exceptionally long-lived lot. Genesis, for example, tells us that “Adam lived 930 years and he died.” Adam’s great-great-great-great-great-grandson, Methuselah, claimed the longevity record, coming in at 969 years.......

To calculate the length of time since Creation, knowledge of more than the ages of death of the twenty-one generations was required; one also needed to know the ages of people of each generation at the time the next generation began. Fortunately, the Bible provided that information as well. For example, Genesis says that at the time Adam gave birth to his first son, Seth, he had "lived 130 years.".....

The Old Testament’s genealogy took Ussher up to the first destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem during the reign of Persian king Nebuchadnezzar. Ussher’s key to precisely dating Creation came from pinning down, by references in non-Christian sources, the precise dates of Nebuchadnezzar’s reign. He finally found the answer in a list of Babylonian kings produced by the Greek astronomer Ptolemy in the second century. By connecting Greek events to Roman history, Ussher tied the date of Nebuchanezzar’s death (562 years to the 3,442 years represented by the generations of the Old Testament up to that time: 4004.
"
But whatever number was the population is a moot point since nobody believed that there would be any impending danger.
But wasn't everyone supposed to be warned so everyone could repent?


The bribe of letting babies into heaven after unjustly drowning them.
Where was this bribe stated?
You stated it.
otseng wrote:And when the babies did die, since they were not sinful, they'd go to heaven.
Yes, the Jews agree with this. So it's not spinning on my part. If you disagree, then aren't you the one spinning the narrative?
The only ones not "spinning" it are those who are right. Can we know for sure who they are?


You've already validated my morality as objective, so you can't duck out of the discussion by turning around and claiming that I have to "borrow" moral objectivity from you.
Of course you're borrowing the justification for objective morality from me. I've asked you to provide a justification for objective morality and all you've stated is:
"Suffice it to say that I don't pretend to fully understand the nature of the Ultimate Source of Existence."

Because I don't vex myself to define God, you assume that your morality is more objective than mine? Only otseng's concept of God can be the correct one?

"Believe those who are seeking the truth. Doubt those who find it."
---Andre Gide

There's nothing inconsistent with my position or arguments. I've never stated that skeptics have no moral objectivity. What I have stated is skeptics have no justification for objective morality.
Again, "justification" is irrelevant. Anyone instilled with objective morality will be objectively moral. According to you, that's everyone.

You believe that everyone has a soul, right? Can you then turn around and say that atheists don't have souls because they have no "justification" for having souls?

Therefore, you can't dismiss the morally objective findings of those who disagree with you as just "opinion".

Even if I grant there are older stories (whether orally or written), it does not disprove the flood actually occurred. Rather, the totality of all the flood accounts around the world is best explained by a global flood actually occurring.
Not really a logical conclusion. Flooding is a common event in coastal areas and a massive flood in any particular area in the ancient world might have seemed like it covered the entire earth.

It's also possible that the proliferation of flood stories came from an originating story rather than from an originating event.

"Archaeological research suggests that our species originated in Sub-Saharan Africa, then spread to the rest of the world via the Middle East. This means cultures that are geographically separated at present would have been able to exchange beliefs and practices back when they lived in roughly the same area. Therefore, patterns in world mythology could help us better understand patterns in early human migration and vice versa."

https://bigthink.com/high-culture/flood-myth-origin/

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #3553

Post by otseng »

Masterblaster wrote: Sun Dec 31, 2023 11:30 am We are talking about Bible inerrancy ( I think)
No, this thread is not to discuss inerrancy. This thread does not assume the Bible is inerrant.
There are two different Gods in the same book. There are two different religions in the same book. The scripture ties used by the NT writers to the OT are flimsy and out of context, in the main. These two books are like a hot air balloon , a basket and a balloon tied together by very spurious connections.
And how did you arrive at this? Please present your argument with evidence instead of just making unsupported claims.
You are in the middle of this, otseng, trying to defend these Gods of yours with Bible scripture that told you about them in the first place.
The thread is not to defend God, but to defend the Bible. Only the current topic of the morality of the Bible can be related to God. And I'm only discussing it because it has been brought up by skeptics many times.
How can that work? Pick a God! Does the Pope believe in Yahweh? I cannot remember hearing him say the word. Are you sure you have the correct deity?
Do even Jews say the name Yahweh?
After deep analysis of your position on this thread, otseng, it appears to me that you are unwittingly, impaling poor old Yahweh, with the pseudo-theological arrows of Pauline nonsense.
What deep analysis? All you've presented are claims with no evidence.

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #3554

Post by otseng »

Athetotheist wrote: Sun Dec 31, 2023 9:28 pm
I think what it refers to was nobody understood what the flood would be like. It was totally beyond anybody's guess of how catastrophic it was.
You have nothing but thin air from which to pull that conclusion. In the context of their continued eating, drinking, marrying, reveling and [by extension] baby-making, they don't suspect a thing.
I presented multiple additional translations to also support it. And how would they know how catastrophic the flood would be? Even we don't fully know after the fact.
That's because, as with the case of the flood, there's so much evidence against it.
No. It's because of the bias against anything that remotely comes close to the Bible.
otseng wrote: Sat Aug 15, 2009 10:13 am When Bertz theorized a cataclysmic flood to explain the Scablands, geologists automatically rejected it, even though he had plenty of evidence for it. No geologist was going to accept anything that would confirm the Bible. It was only until Pardee came along and proposed an ice dam as the cause did geologists accept a local flood explanation of the Scablands. However, Bertz had much more evidence for the flood than did Pardee for an ice dam. It was only until a non-Biblical explanation could be offered would it be accepted.
The very word "Catastrophism" was heinous in the ears of geologists. To
think in terms of massive, precipitous changes (beyond the occasional
earthquake or volcano) was unacceptable, and the very idea of a sudden,
colossal flood smacked too much of Biblical thinking, of a return to
Noah, the ark, and the fifteen cubit depth (22.5 feet) of water which
drowned the world (Genesis 7:20). It was a step backwards, a betrayal
of all that geological science had fought to gain.
It was heresy of the worst order.
http://www.geo.ucalgary.ca/~macrae/t_or ... tz_re.html
What's supposed to be the same is right there in the text: the eating, the drinking, the marrying, the reveling.....the general disbelief in the warning.
Yes, they didn't believe in the warning.
Would anyone with that attitude be able to warn their week-old baby of anything just before it happened?
I thought we just agreed babies cannot be "warned".
What I claim God is like is what is described in the Bible and no more. Anything beyond that is either speculation or a strawman.
Why can't a Muslim claim the same thing about how the Quran describes Allah just as legitimately?
Muslims can claim whatever they want. But this thread is not to discuss Islam or any other religion.

The issue is what skeptics of the Bible claim. I would assert the vast majority of arguments skeptics bring up against the Bible are based on either inerrancy or omnipotence. And I've argued, they are to be rejected:

* Is it necessary for the Bible to be inerrant?
* Is the Christian God omnipotent?

Now, I don't fault the skeptics for assuming these things. These are commonly believed and asserted by Christians. But after diving deeply into the Bible for the past few years through translating the Bible and debating on the forum for 20 years, I'm convinced of my position and willing to challenge these commonly held assumptions.
What issue have you brought up that I haven't addressed?
You don't address any of my issues by deflecting to "skeptics". That's the point I was making.
If I've eventually been addressing your issues, even if I talk about skeptics, it doesn't nullify me having addressed your issues.
"Jusification" of objective morality is irrelevant. If everyone has objective morality, then everyone's morality is just as objective as yours.
Some philosophical musings first...

If anybody claims they have objective morality and they have no viable justification for it, then it's a faith claim. How is it any different than a Christian claiming the Bible is the word of God and then fail to provide any justification for it?

Though I claim all people have objective morality, it does not mean everyone's morals are fully identical. It means we all have an intuitive sense of right and wrong and how people ought to act, even if we cannot fully articulate it. We have a sense that killing babies is wrong. We have a sense that justice should happen. We have a sense people should be good. We even have a sense that subjective morality is wrong.

Though we have objective morality, ethics is still a complicated subject. It even has its own branch of study in philosophy and people specialize in the study of ethics.

I don't think moral philosophy can ever fully explain our internal sense of objective morality. Rather, it is more our internal objective morality is the foundational basis for moral philosophy.

OK, back to what you're getting at...

Though I claim all people have objective morality, it does not mean whatever moral judgments people make are all equally valid. Though we can agree in the generals, we can have disagreements in the specifics. We all agree people should be good, but there can be disagreement on what is good.
The contradiction is when you accuse skeptics----and non-biblical theists like myself----of having "no justification" for our objective morality and then use that as an excuse to dismiss our objectively moral findings as just our "opinion".
What I'm highlighting is the inconsistency of a worldview, not arguing people do not have objective moral values. Any religion that believes in a creator God that instills in humans the image of God has a rational basis for objective morality. Other than that, no other viable justification has been offered. To be rationally consistent, if one claims to have objective morality, then one should believe in a God as described in the Bible.
You're going to have to paint a picture for me as to how a global deluge would be necessary for the advent of our modern appliances.
I'd be glad to sometime, but we are getting really off track from the discussion on morality.
I don't believe in Ussher's dates
His dates are the Bible's dates.
Though Ussher is the one most commonly cited, there are actually many others that have also calculated the date of creation.
and I don't see how that figure was calculated.
Ussher began his calculation by adding the ages of the twenty-one generations of people of the Hebrew-derived Old Testament, beginning with Adam and Eve.
I'm talking about the "14 million+ people" figure. But again, it's irrelevant since it doesn't matter if it was 14 thousand or 14 billion people.
But whatever number was the population is a moot point since nobody believed that there would be any impending danger.
But wasn't everyone supposed to be warned so everyone could repent?
As I've argued, I believe they were warned. Though an argument can be made if they were sufficiently warned. Just because someone builds a giant billboard saying the world will end in 2024 doesn't prove it will actually happen.
The bribe of letting babies into heaven after unjustly drowning them.
Where was this bribe stated?
You stated it.
otseng wrote:And when the babies did die, since they were not sinful, they'd go to heaven.
I did not state it was a "bribe".
The only ones not "spinning" it are those who are right. Can we know for sure who they are?
A major theme of the Bible is sin and judgment. So, the narrative of the Canaanite conquest is consistent with this. And as I've pointed out, even the Israelites suffered extinction because of their sins.
Because I don't vex myself to define God, you assume that your morality is more objective than mine? Only otseng's concept of God can be the correct one?
I don't claim anyone's morality is more objective than another's.

What I am pointing out is whatever worldview you have, it has less explanatory power than mine in regards to morality.
"Believe those who are seeking the truth. Doubt those who find it."
---Andre Gide
To be clear, I do not claim to have the truth. But I do claim to have found the source of truth.
Can you then turn around and say that atheists don't have souls because they have no "justification" for having souls?
Do atheists claim they have souls?
It's also possible that the proliferation of flood stories came from an originating story rather than from an originating event.
I disagree, but want to get back to morality instead of the flood. As I've pointed out, I have many threads on the flood and people can go through those.

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What is slavery?

Post #3555

Post by otseng »

Another major Old Testament ethical issue commonly brought up by skeptics is slavery.
The Bible may, indeed does, contain a warrant for trafficking in humans, for ethnic cleansing, for slavery, for bride-price, and for indiscriminate massacre, but we are not bound by any of it because it was put together by crude, uncultured human mammals.
Christopher Hitchens
https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Slavery_in_the_Bible

What do we mean by slavery? There is not a definitive definition for it, but there are several definitions.

In modern usage, slavery is often defined as ownership of a person as property.
Slavery is the ownership of a person as property, especially in regards to their labor.
The word "slavery" has also been used to refer to a legal state of dependency to somebody else.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery
1. the condition of being enslaved, held, or owned as human chattel or property; bondage.
2. a practice or institution that treats or recognizes some human beings as the legal property of others.
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/slavery
the activity of legally owning other people who are forced to work for or obey you
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dic ... sh/slavery
A form of social stratification in which some individuals are literally owned by others as their property.
https://www.oxfordreference.com/display ... 3100510888

Slavery can mean any activity that is forced by another to perform.
Slavery is the brutal and immoral practice of forcing someone into servitude without paying them.
https://www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/slavery
The word slavery is often used as a pejorative to describe any activity in which one is coerced into performing.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery

Slavery under the UN is people being exploited.
Although modern slavery is not defined in law, it is used as an umbrella term covering practices such as forced labour, debt bondage, forced marriage, and human trafficking. Essentially, it refers to situations of exploitation that a person cannot refuse or leave because of threats, violence, coercion, deception, and/or abuse of power.
https://www.un.org/en/observances/slavery-abolition-day

Slavery can mean unconditional servitude.
Slavery is the unconditional servitude of one individual to another.
https://www.encyclopedia.com/social-sci ... or/slavery

So, there are many ways to define slavery.
1. the practice or institution of holding people as chattel involuntarily and under threat of violence
2. the state of a person who is forced usually under threat of violence to labor for the profit of another
3. a situation or practice in which people are entrapped (as by debt) and exploited
4. submission to a dominating influence
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/slavery

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

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Re: Genocide and child sacrifices

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

Post #3559

Post by Masterblaster »

Hello otseng

How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

You say - "No, this thread is not to discuss inerrancy. This thread does not assume the Bible is inerrant.......

The thread is not to defend God, but to defend the Bible.

‐---------------

Ok! otseng, is this a game of "I Spy", where you are looking at something and we have to guess what it is.

I cannot remember when I last ran into such a pile of pious claptrap. Lead on Macduff!
'Love God with all you have and love others in the same way.'

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Re: How can we trust the Bible if it's not inerrant?

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