Elijah John wrote:
52The tombs were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; 53and coming out of the tombs after His resurrection they entered the holy city and appeared to many.
Mathew 27.52-53
If this mass resurrection had actually happened, why was such a remarkable event only recorded by Matthew?
Who are the "many" that the resurrected saints appeared to?
Why didn't any record such a remarkable event?
How come no Roman historian wrote about it?
Does this verse add to, or detract from Matthew's credibility?
Did Matthew lie or did he take "poetic license"?
Is this verse problematic for Bible literalists?
Not only did no Roman historian mention this "event," no Jewish historian mentioned it either. No one mentioned it or even seemed to know about it except the author of Gospel Matthew. Where did these "many" reanimated dead people go? Did they return to their families? Did they crawl back into their graves? No one mentions any of it.
So is it fair to infer that the author of Gospel Matthew was a liar, or that he simply "made stuff up?"
Matthew 2:
[16] Then Herod, when he saw that he was mocked of the wise men, was exceeding wroth, and sent forth, and slew all the children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the coasts thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently inquired of the wise men.
Here is another "event" found only in Gospel Matthew. The so called "Massacre of the Innocents." The other Gospels don't mention it. Historians generally deny that it occurred because there is absolutely no mention of it anywhere anywhere outside of Gospel Matthew.
Matthew 27:
[66] So they went, and made the sepulchre sure, sealing the stone, and setting a watch.
The guard at the tomb. Like the "Massacre of the Innocents," and the "Resurrection of the Saints," this is only found in Gospel Matthew. How could all three of the other Gospels have failed to mention something this spectacularly important to Christian doctrine? If the tomb wasn't even guarded, then the claim that the tomb was empty because Jesus was resurrected, a wholly unrealistic claim, is a good deal less than flimsy.
So is Gospel Matthew reliable? Does it represent undeniable historical proof that Jesus was resurrected from the dead? Or does it represent the flights of fancy, rumor and propaganda, of its author and nothing more?
Additional claims found only in Gospel Matthew:
The healing of the two blind men - Mt 9:27-31
The promise of the primacy to Peter - Mt 16:17-19
The tax paid by Jesus - Mt 17:24-27
The story of Judas’ suicide - Mt 27: 3-10