Many claim the bible is the infailable word of an omnipotent, omniscient god; that the bible is innerant(no error, no contradiction) but this is far from being the case.
One such example is that fact the bible both says that nobody saw God or God's face and that some saw God or God's face.
On one hand we have some verses say no human has ever seen God or God's face:
"But He said, “You cannot see My face; for no man shall see Me, and live.�"(Exodus 33:20)
"No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him."(John 1:18)
"No one has seen God at any time. If we love one another, God abides in us, and His love has been perfected in us."(1 John 4:12)
On the other hand we have other verses that say several humans have seen God or God's face:
Abraham saw God:
“Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless; “(Gen. 17:1)
"Now the LORD appeared to him by the oaks of Mamre, while he was sitting at the tent door in the heat of the day.� (Gen. 18:1)
Moses saw God:
"The LORD would speak to Moses face to face, as one speaks to a friend."(Exodus 33:11)
Jacob saw God:
" And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: “For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.“ " ( Genesis 32:30)
Many people saw Jesus or Jesus's face. And he is God. Therefore many saw god or god's face.
Q: How can anyone say with a straight face this is not a contradiction? Eh?
I think a far more interesting question arises from these examples:
The writings listed in the OP were written by men; men who knew the same texts no less than you.
How could such people write what they wrote if it is so obvious to YOU that they contain contradictions? Two possibilities for consideration:
1) They were all dumb as rocks and didn't recognize a contradiction when it slapped them in the face.
2) We are separated from them by centuries, during which enormous shifts in various paradigms have occurred: shifts in language and categories of thought. We attempt to translate what they wrote into our own modern language, and then interpret our own translation according to our own modern categories of thought. And so we find contradictions. But would they be contradictions for them? Example: it is not hard to imagine a future civilization stumbling upon a random corpus of writing from our own period, and finding two statements from the journal of the same author, which don't match: 1) I discovered that rain is made up of hydrogen and oxygen. 2) It was raining cats and dogs that day.
Q4D: Which is a better explanation for the apparent contradictions listed in the OP? Or, is there another explanation that hasn't been represented?