Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

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otseng
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Post #41

Post by otseng »

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #42

Post by MuffMaYne »

[Replying to post 1 by Willum]

The Bible is a collection of books compiled into one book, so that would require every individual book to make that claim. Why do we think it's perfect? Because each book was inspired by those closest to God in their life-time.

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #43

Post by William »

[Replying to post 42 by MuffMaYne]
Why do we think it's perfect? Because each book was inspired by those closest to God in their life-time.
There are books and writ and art etc created by humans inspired by GOD even today. Why then would anyone arguing for this not also be able to argue that inspired-by-GOD writ art etc outside of the bible are not also to be considered either actually 'inspired by GOD' or inerrant for that?

When did GOD decide to stop inspiring humans? Because that is the gist of the belief that the bible alone is 'the word of GOD', is it not?

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #44

Post by MuffMaYne »

[Replying to post 43 by William]
There are books and writ and art etc created by humans inspired by GOD even today.
IDK in what fashion someone could objectively claim a piece of art or a poem to be perfect, but when or if someone finds out a way, let me know.

Why then would anyone arguing for this not also be able to argue that inspired-by-GOD writ art etc outside of the bible are not also to be considered either actually 'inspired by GOD' or inerrant for that?
You started off with one basic question, I showed it to be a very terrible question to even ask, and now you're just bombarding the topic with new questions.
When did GOD decide to stop inspiring humans? Because that is the gist of the belief that the bible alone is 'the word of GOD', is it not?
I don't know. Can't say He did or didn't stop inspiring people. Was the Old Testament not the word of God before the New Testament? Wasn't there around a 400 year period between the last book of the OT and the first book of the NT?

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #45

Post by Tcg »

MuffMaYne wrote:
[Replying to post 1 by Willum]

Why do we think it's perfect?
"We" don't think it is perfect. "You" may think it is so, but that doesn't address the OP. The question is where does it claim to be inerrant.

Because each book was inspired by those closest to God in their life-time.
This claim is not only unsupported, but doesn't address the OP. The question is where does it claim to be inerrant.

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #46

Post by MuffMaYne »

[Replying to post 45 by Tcg]

I already addressed that. "IT" is a bunch of books compiled so there is no singular "IT"

If you wan't to force the subject even tho the premise is completely wrong and the question itself is just wrong at its core.

2 Timothy 3:16
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness,

This would basically mean if scripture is wrong then God himself is wrong. If God is perfect then scripture must be perfect. There is no "The Bible is perfect" verse. There were no Bibles during those times.

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #47

Post by Tcg »

MuffMaYne wrote: [Replying to post 45 by Tcg]

I already addressed that. "IT" is a bunch of books compiled so there is no singular "IT"
Then your answer to "where" would be no where. Oddly, you didn't state that.

If you wan't to force the subject even tho the premise is completely wrong and the question itself is just wrong at its core.
You are the one trying to force that subject to something unrelated to the OP


2 Timothy 3:16
All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness,

This would basically mean if scripture is wrong then God himself is wrong. If God is perfect then scripture must be perfect.
No, it doesn't. And don't forget, the subject is "where".

There is no "The Bible is perfect" verse. There were no Bibles during those times.
If you had bothered to read the thread as a whole, you'd realize this has already been addressed.

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #48

Post by MuffMaYne »

[Replying to post 47 by Tcg]

Rarely is anything as black and white or as dumbed down as you wan't to make this. Do individual books have verses that would have you believe they are the perfect word of God? Yes. Does the Bible as a whole claim this? Impossible.

The problem isn't me. The question is the problem. To even ask the question shows a lack of knowledge about the Bible.

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #49

Post by Tcg »

Double post.
Last edited by Tcg on Sat Aug 04, 2018 9:28 pm, edited 1 time in total.

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Re: Where in the Bible does it claim to be inerrant?

Post #50

Post by Tcg »

Tcg wrote:
MuffMaYne wrote: [Replying to post 47 by Tcg]

Do individual books have verses that would have you believe they are the perfect word of God? Yes.
Speak for yourself. There isn't a single word in the Bible that would cause me to believe that. In any case, this is totally unrelated to the question the OP asks. The question is, "where".



Does the Bible as a whole claim this? Impossible.
As I have stated, this has already been dealt with. If you bothered to read the thread, you'd know this.

The problem isn't me. The question is the problem. To even ask the question shows a lack of knowledge about the Bible.
The problem is that you aren't addressing the OP.

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