Not really. Was the gospel signed or does it state John wrote this gospel?
If not, how is it determined to have been written by John?

Moderator: Moderators
otseng wrote:Can you give a specific example where the author explicitly says TDWJL is John the apostle?JehovahsWitness wrote: The writer of John is quite consistent in referring to the beloved Apostle so to conclude he chose to also identifiy the same individual clearly as Lazarus of Bethany, and then switched back to leaving him nameless (after having earlier named him) is imposing a lack of logic that is not in my opinion justified by the narrative.
Actually, I believe it is logical and consistent.JehovahsWitness wrote: My point is to suggest that TDWJL was Lazarus has the writer naming him and then resorting to the nameless title having earlier named him, which is illogical and inconsistent.
So you recognise the "Lazarus theory" does represent an inconsistency; ie identifyjng the same individual by name during the first half of the narrative but not doing this consistently throughout the book and rather switching half way through to a code name. The explanation for this being the wish to remain anonymous as the author.otseng wrote:
We also know the author wanted to remain anonymous. So, a reason it was changed from his real name, Lazarus, to his code name, TDWJL, is so he can remain anonymous as an author.