2timothy316 wrote:None of these scriptures are evidence that Jesus wouldn't use God's name.
That's thirty-eight scripture references where Jesus uses an epithet to refer to God versus zero references where he is recorded as using God's name. There are also zero references that suggest in some way a use of God's name even if God's name was later swapped for an epithet. Statistical analysis, even as simple as this, is generally considered to be reasonable as evidence, but I can't fail to notice that instead of actually rebutting it, you simply dismissed it out of hand.
As a reminder, you haven't offered any suggestions (even bad ones) about why neither Jesus nor his hearers reacted to your presumed use of God's name. I expect that the hearers would have objected and Jesus would have made it an object lesson if he had actually said God's name. Can you offer justification for why I shouldn't expect that?
2timothy316 wrote:Yet I have quoted a scripture that is evidence that Jesus did use God's name.
“I have made Your name known to them and will continue to make it known� (John 17:26) (BSV)
Which means Jesus has made both the actual name of God known and what it stands for. Not only that but that Jesus will continue to do so. He does so to this very day.
The Dead Sea Scrolls contain several examples of prayers and hymns that use very similar language to this (I'm quoting from "The Thanksgiving Hymns" from
The Complete Dead Sea Scrolls in English by Geza Vermes):
- "...and that Thy Name be praised by the mouth of all men and that they may know Thee according to their understanding and bless Thee for ever..."
- "But my foot remains upon level ground; apart from their assembly I will bless Thy Name."
- "I will bless Thy Name evermore. I will declare Thy glory in the midst of the sons of men and my soul shall delight in Thy great goodness."
However, the community also had an explicit rule against saying the name of God:
If any man has uttered the [Most] Venerable Name even though frivolously, or as a result of shock or for any other reason whatever, while reading the Book or blessing, he shall be dismissed and shall return to the Council of the Community no more.
So, a group of Jewish contemporaries of Jesus used the same kind of language that Jesus did about God's name, but
also observed a tradition of not saying it aloud. It's certainly possible that Jesus meant his words differently than the Qumran community did, but your single quote doesn't demonstrate that or even imply it. All you've proven is that Jesus used the same language to make the same kind of devotional statements about God as fellow Jews that had a tradition of not saying God's name.
Incidentally, you do realize that if Jesus "does so to this very day," then he must necessarily do so in some way other than vocalizing God's name directly to his audience, right?
2timothy316 wrote:You MUST present something like this in order for me to reply. If you have no scripture and just more words of your own opinion then we are done here and as far as I'm concerned your debate material is empty.
I'd like to point out that I've actually
rebutted your evidence by providing other, related evidence. Whether I've effectively done so is certainly up for further debate (or groundless dismissal again, I guess), but I haven't simply rejected what you've offered with no analysis.
As a suggestion for the continuing discussion, I remind you that I'd like to hear your opinion of what proportion of Jesus's references to God were actually God's name when Jesus spoke and the New Testament autographs were written.