The divine name in the New Testament?

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historia
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The divine name in the New Testament?

Post #1

Post by historia »

Romans 14:8 (NWT) wrote:
For if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. So both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah.
Questions for debate:

1. Should translations of the New Testament be emended to include the divine name?

2. Should this particular verse, Roman 14:8, be emended to include the divine name?

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Post #61

Post by 2timothy316 »

Difflugia wrote:
2timothy316 wrote:You have presented no scriptural evidence that Jesus wouldn't use his Father's name.
I totally did. Let's recap.

I marked several pericopers in which others object when Jesus ignores Jewish tradition, then Jesus makes a big deal about it:
Mk 7:1-8
Mk 3:1-6
Lk 13:10-17
None of these scriptures are evidence that Jesus wouldn't use God's name.

Yet I have quoted a scripture that is evidence that Jesus did use God's name.

“I have made Your name known to them and will continue to make it known� (John 17:26) (BSV)
Which means Jesus has made both the actual name of God known and what it stands for. Not only that but that Jesus will continue to do so. He does so to this very day.

You MUST present something like this in order for me to reply. If you have no scripture and just more words of your own opinion then we are done here and as far as I'm concerned your debate material is empty.

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Difflugia
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Post #62

Post by Difflugia »

2timothy316 wrote:None of these scriptures are evidence that Jesus wouldn't use God's name.
That's thirty-eight scripture references where Jesus uses an epithet to refer to God versus zero references where he is recorded as using God's name. There are also zero references that suggest in some way a use of God's name even if God's name was later swapped for an epithet. Statistical analysis, even as simple as this, is generally considered to be reasonable as evidence, but I can't fail to notice that instead of actually rebutting it, you simply dismissed it out of hand.

As a reminder, you haven't offered any suggestions (even bad ones) about why neither Jesus nor his hearers reacted to your presumed use of God's name. I expect that the hearers would have objected and Jesus would have made it an object lesson if he had actually said God's name. Can you offer justification for why I shouldn't expect that?
2timothy316 wrote:Yet I have quoted a scripture that is evidence that Jesus did use God's name.

“I have made Your name known to them and will continue to make it known� (John 17:26) (BSV)
Which means Jesus has made both the actual name of God known and what it stands for. Not only that but that Jesus will continue to do so. He does so to this very day.
The Dead Sea Scrolls contain several examples of prayers and hymns that use very similar language to this (I'm quoting from "The Thanksgiving Hymns" from The Complete Dead Sea Scrolls in English by Geza Vermes):
  • "...and that Thy Name be praised by the mouth of all men and that they may know Thee according to their understanding and bless Thee for ever..."
  • "But my foot remains upon level ground; apart from their assembly I will bless Thy Name."
  • "I will bless Thy Name evermore. I will declare Thy glory in the midst of the sons of men and my soul shall delight in Thy great goodness."
However, the community also had an explicit rule against saying the name of God:
If any man has uttered the [Most] Venerable Name even though frivolously, or as a result of shock or for any other reason whatever, while reading the Book or blessing, he shall be dismissed and shall return to the Council of the Community no more.
So, a group of Jewish contemporaries of Jesus used the same kind of language that Jesus did about God's name, but also observed a tradition of not saying it aloud. It's certainly possible that Jesus meant his words differently than the Qumran community did, but your single quote doesn't demonstrate that or even imply it. All you've proven is that Jesus used the same language to make the same kind of devotional statements about God as fellow Jews that had a tradition of not saying God's name.

Incidentally, you do realize that if Jesus "does so to this very day," then he must necessarily do so in some way other than vocalizing God's name directly to his audience, right?
2timothy316 wrote:You MUST present something like this in order for me to reply. If you have no scripture and just more words of your own opinion then we are done here and as far as I'm concerned your debate material is empty.
I'd like to point out that I've actually rebutted your evidence by providing other, related evidence. Whether I've effectively done so is certainly up for further debate (or groundless dismissal again, I guess), but I haven't simply rejected what you've offered with no analysis.

As a suggestion for the continuing discussion, I remind you that I'd like to hear your opinion of what proportion of Jesus's references to God were actually God's name when Jesus spoke and the New Testament autographs were written.

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Post #63

Post by 2timothy316 »

[Replying to post 62 by Difflugia]

I scanned your reply for scriptures and found none. I didn't even read the rest since there are no scriptures in your reply, thus you're presenting something I have no interest in reading. When you have scriptures to present I will respond to the scriptures.

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Post #64

Post by onewithhim »

[Replying to post 62 by Difflugia]

Since God's name, as the Tetragrammaton [YHWH], appeared in the O.T. 7,000 times, everywhere that "LORD" appears (in all uppercase letters), when quoted by New Testament authors it is logical to think that they would write out the Tetragrammaton that they see in the verses they are quoting. Why would they substitute it with "Lord?"

Since the N.T. was inspired by God, in addition to the Hebrew Scriptures, don't you think that the sudden disappearance of YHWH from the text would seem inconsistent? We've got 7,000 occurrences of God's name in the O.T. and then NONE in the N.T.?? Something doesn't add up here.

I find this little gem of a fact quite intriguing:

"The Tosefta, a written collection of oral laws that was completed c.300 A.D., says with regard to Christian writings that were burned on the Sabbath: 'The books of the Evangelists and the books of the minim [thought to be Jewish Christians] they do not save from a fire. But they are allowed to burn where they are, they and the references to the Divine Name which are in them.' This same source quotes Rabbi Yose the Galilean, who lived at the beginning of the 2nd century A.D., as saying that on other days of the week, 'one cuts out the references to the Divine Name which are in them [understood to refer to the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns.'"

Therefore, it is completely reasonable to assert that Christian writers of the N.T. books would also include the Divine Name in their writings. It seemed to be the habit of Christian writers overall.




(NWT, pages 1736-1741)

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Difflugia
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Post #65

Post by Difflugia »

onewithhim wrote:Since God's name, as the Tetragrammaton [YHWH], appeared in the O.T. 7,000 times, everywhere that "LORD" appears (in all uppercase letters), when quoted by New Testament authors it is logical to think that they would write out the Tetragrammaton that they see in the verses they are quoting. Why would they substitute it with "Lord?"
That only holds if the New Testament authors were directly quoting from the Hebrew and not a Greek translation that replaced יהוה with Κ��ιός. Since we have very strong evidence that such translations existed, were contemporary with the writing of the New Testament, and match word-for-word most of the Old Testament quotations in the New Testament, there's a logical path for the loss of the Tetragrammaton in the Greek New Testament. You may have theological reasons for thinking that's not what happened, but that's pretty thin evidence for the implication that such a path is implausible.
onewithhim wrote:Since the N.T. was inspired by God, in addition to the Hebrew Scriptures, don't you think that the sudden disappearance of YHWH from the text would seem inconsistent? We've got 7,000 occurrences of God's name in the O.T. and then NONE in the N.T.?? Something doesn't add up here.
Could it be the premise that the New Testament was inspired by God?
onewithhim wrote:I find this little gem of a fact quite intriguing:

"The Tosefta, a written collection of oral laws that was completed c.300 A.D., says with regard to Christian writings that were burned on the Sabbath: 'The books of the Evangelists and the books of the minim [thought to be Jewish Christians] they do not save from a fire. But they are allowed to burn where they are, they and the references to the Divine Name which are in them.' This same source quotes Rabbi Yose the Galilean, who lived at the beginning of the 2nd century A.D., as saying that on other days of the week, 'one cuts out the references to the Divine Name which are in them [understood to refer to the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns.'"

Therefore, it is completely reasonable to assert that Christian writers of the N.T. books would also include the Divine Name in their writings.
It's reasonable to assert that. You have done so, in fact. You haven't offered much supporting evidence to back up your assertion, though. At the least, it's also reasonable to assert that the references to the Divine Name may have only been contained in the writings of the minim and the Gospels were just guilty by association, as it were. Such would be entirely consistent with the quote you offered.
onewithhim wrote:It seemed to be the habit of Christian writers overall.
Or at least of a single sect with more Jewish customs.

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Post #66

Post by Elijah John »

[Replying to post 65 by Difflugia]

The Divine Name YHVH occurs almost 7000 times in the "Old" Testament, Hebrew Bible. How many times does Paul's "Christ" appear in the NT? It would be interesting to compare, but I suspect that Paul's God for all practical purposes is "Christ", not Jehovah. For all practical purposes the NT writers saw no need to revere the name of God when they had a new name to revere, "Christ" as in "for me to live is Christ and to die is gain. "Christ" the name above all others in the New Testament, even above YHVH's own.
My theological positions:

-God created us in His image, not the other way around.
-The Bible is redeemed by it's good parts.
-Pure monotheism, simple repentance.
-YHVH is LORD
-The real Jesus is not God, the real YHVH is not a monster.
-Eternal life is a gift from the Living God.
-Keep the Commandments, keep your salvation.
-I have accepted YHVH as my Heavenly Father, LORD and Savior.

I am inspired by Jesus to worship none but YHVH, and to serve only Him.

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Post #67

Post by Tcg »

Elijah John wrote: [Replying to post 65 by Difflugia]

How many times does Paul's "Christ" appear in the NT?
In the book of Romans (ESV version) it appears 70 times.
It would be interesting to compare, but I suspect that Paul's God for all practical purposes is "Christ", not Jehovah. For all practical purposes the NT writers saw no need to revere the name of God when they had a new name to revere, "Christ" as in "for me to live is Christ and to die is gain. "Christ" the name above all others in the New Testament, even above YHVH's own.

In the book of Romans (ESV version) the name "God" appears 145 times. That's more than double the occurrences of the name "Christ."


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Re: The divine name in the New Testament?

Post #68

Post by Red Wolf »

[Replying to post 1 by historia]

If you believe God inspired the writing of the Bible you have to wonder why he didn't inspire the writers to include the divine name.

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