How Is The Hypostatic Union Possible?

[HimWithin]

How can Jesus as one person be both fully human and fully divine?

[JehovahsWitness]

The Son has been exalted by the Father to the rank of the Father.

Jesus , by dying for humans has become MANKIND'S father (replacing Adam) but there is no scripture that even suggest he became the Father of YAHWEH. Jesus is always referred to as the Son and YHWH always refered to as the Father. Never is anyone refered to as being YHWHs "father", not even Jesus.

“For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son, that all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father.” (Joh 5:22-23)

The Father has "committed" . Various translations render that as "given" , "assigned" "entrusted" ... so God has effectively delegated his Son to act on his behalf in judging. That implies the task has its limits and it temporary in nature. This indeed is the case since Jesus explains he cannot do a single thing of his own initiative and the Apostle Paul explains that the Son will eventually hand back kingdom authority and all that entails to his Father (see 1 Cor 15:24)

[JehovahsWitness]

How can the human man Jesus be both fully human and fully God as one person?

If you mean how can a human reflect godly qualities such as love, wisdom and power, he can do so by imitating God and trying to the best of ones ability to please the Almighty in word and deed. All humans can do this to a certain degree and of course Jesus did so perfectly.

What no human, not even Jesus can be is equal to the father in rank, authority, position or age (see posts above).

[Mr E]

[Replying to HimWithin in post #1]

How Is The Hypostatic Union Possible?

How can Jesus as one person be both fully human and fully divine?

In response, first- why do you ask? Are you suggesting that it is not possible? Are you suggesting that Jesus can't be both fully human and fully divine?

Or are you asking a bigger question-- Why is the idea (doctrine) necessary? It's a fourth or fifth century invention to solve an apparent dilemma, but both the problem and the solution were entirely manufactured.

[HimWithin]

Yes, @HimWithin, Jesus is fully God with the Father and the Spirit as the one, only true God. But Jesus is also fully human as the Son of God the Father.

If Jesus was fully God being with the Father and the Spirit, He would be God in a union of three persons, and not as one person.
Jesus became fully human as one person, but He cannot be fully God as one person, because God is more than one person.

[HimWithin]

Jesus had acknowledged Himself as the "Son of man" and the "Son of God."
If Jesus as the "Son of man" means He was a man, why do the Scriptures explicitly write "Son of God" if it bears the same meaning as man?

Good question.

“Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although existing in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, by taking the form of a slave, by being made in the likeness of men.” (Phi 2:5-11)

If the person of the preincarnate Word existed with God in the beginning, and that same person emptied Himself of His deity and was later conceived by God in the human nature of man, then that person would be the Son of God by conception/begetting and the Son of man by birth, both in human form.

[HimWithin]

[Replying to HimWithin in post #1]

How Is The Hypostatic Union Possible?
How can Jesus as one person be both fully human and fully divine?

In response, first- why do you ask?

To receive an answer.

Are you suggesting that it is not possible?

It doesn’t seem possible to me.

Are you suggesting that Jesus can't be both fully human and fully divine?

I am suggesting that Jesus as one person cannot be both fully human and fully divine?

Or are you asking a bigger question-- Why is the idea (doctrine) necessary?

The idea that Jesus in human nature was both fully human and fully divine is necessary IMO.
But what is the nature of that union?

It's a fourth or fifth century invention to solve an apparent dilemma, but both the problem and the solution were entirely manufactured.

I can see the problem, but I’m not sure there’s a solution to the invention.

[BruceLeiter]

[Replying to HimWithin in post #24]

Respectfully, I think that you are overthinking what the Bible describes as a Mystery, @HimWithin. God is three Persons in one God, and Jesus is fully God and fully human. That's it.

[Capbook]

Jesus had acknowledged Himself as the "Son of man" and the "Son of God."
If Jesus as the "Son of man" means He was a man, why do the Scriptures explicitly write "Son of God" if it bears the same meaning as man?

Good question.

“Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although existing in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, by taking the form of a slave, by being made in the likeness of men.” (Phi 2:5-11)

If the person of the preincarnate Word existed with God in the beginning, and that same person emptied Himself of His deity and was later conceived by God in the human nature of man, then that person would be the Son of God by conception/begetting and the Son of man by birth, both in human form.

Let us dissect your quoted text: yes, the phrase "Christ Jesus existing in the form of God," just before He emptied Himself from that form of God, proves the "hypostatic union" exists.

And the word "emptied" bears Strong#G2758, in Greek "κενόω kenoō" defined by Bible Lexicon as 'to divest oneself of one's prerogatives, etc., ' which would mean that, by His own prerogative, He chooses to divest that power of God that need not be grasped, as the Word's God's nature who became Him never ceased as God.

Php 2:7 but  N1 R1 emptied G2758  Himself G1438 , taking G2983  the form G3444  of a  R2 bond-servant G1401 , and  R3 being G1096  made G1096  in the likeness G3667  of men G444 .

G2758 (Mounce)
κενόω kenoō
5x: to empty, evacuate; ἑαυτόν, to divest one’s self of one’s prerogatives, abase one’s self, Php 2:7; to deprive a thing of its proper functions, Rom 4:14; 1Co 1:17; to show to be without foundation, falsify, 1Co 9:15; 2Co 9:3.

[Mr E]

[Replying to HimWithin in post #26]

MrE- Are you suggesting that it is not possible?

Him-It doesn’t seem possible to me.

MrE-Are you suggesting that Jesus can't be both fully human and fully divine?

Him- I am suggesting that Jesus as one person cannot be both fully human and fully divine?

I agree with you on this. To be 100% one thing, is to be zero percent anything else. To be 100% God is zero percent human.

A bottle of wine is 100% wine and zero percent milk. That speaks nothing of the bottle. Jesus was 100% human container for the 100% divine/spirit-son of God.

[HimWithin]

Who else but God has the qualities or nature of a deity?

Angels (Psalm 8:5), humans (Psalm 82:6), false Gods (Judges 11:24) ...

Angels, humans, and false gods do not possess deity as God does, but Jesus does.

"For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells bodily" (Col 2:9)

The Son is a created being. In other words, there was a time when the spirit being " The Word" (later born as the human Jesus) did not exist.

Where in the scriptures does it say that the Son/Word was created?

God does not require anyone or anything to be complete in himself. One should not confuse attributes with the expression of attributes. An attribute is something that is intrinsic to oneself, it is what the individual IS not simply what he DOES.

“God IS love” (1 Joh 4:16)

God is 100% complete in all his qualities (love/power/wisdom/justice) so just as he didn't require anyone else to witness or receive his omnipotence, so he didn't require or need an external object to BE love.

God IS love. Love is intrinsic to God. Love is a relational expression that is always active. Love is not love if it is not being expressed relationally. Love requires more than one person to be expressed.

If the eternal God Himself IS love, it means that God is eternally expressing Himself through His love to another person, and that person is His Son, the eternal Word.

“God is love, and he who lives in love lives in God, and God in him.” (1 Joh 4:16)

The Son lives in the Father and the Father lives in the Son as one God who IS love.

“That you may know and believe that the Father is in Me, and I in Him.” (Joh 10:37-38)
“I and My Father are one” (Joh 10:30-33)

Proving they are not equal.
1. Power cannot be "given" to someone that is omninpotent (all powerful)
2. Prior to being given "all authority" the Son did not have it.
3. Even after being given "all authority" the Son cannot say his power comes from himself.

“Christ Jesus, who, although existing in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself” (Phi 2: 5-7)

Jesus emptied Himself of His divine power and authority to become a man.
After His resurrection, His divine power and authority was restored.
The power and authority He received as the resurrected Son is the same power and authority He had as the preincarnate WORD.
He was simply restored to the power and authority He already had before the world was created.

“And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” (Joh 17:5)

If a son inherits from the Father does that make him equal to his Father? Or does that rather mean he owes (and will always owe) everything he has to his Father?

It means that the Son has been given full authority over all that the Father has, and is therefore equal in authority over all that the Father has given Him, so that all creation honors and worships both equally, with the Son remaining subject to the Father.

“All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. (Mat 28:18)
“All that belongs to the Father is mine.” (Joh 16:15)

NOTE God is unchanging, therefore whatever he gives he must remain the Supreme Ruler of the Universe since again this ultimate authority is intrinsic to himself. Delegating, appointing or giving does not change his position it only elevates others according to His will.

I agree it does not change the Father’s position, but it does change the Son’s position.
The Father has elevated the Son to the Father’s level of authority, so that we honor the Father and Son equally.

“For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son, that all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.” (Joh 5:22)

Jesus , by dying for humans has become MANKIND'S father (replacing Adam) but there is no scripture that even suggest he became the Father of YAHWEH.

Nor was I suggesting it.

Jesus is always referred to as the Son and YHWH always refered to as the Father.

The Son is called by His Father’s name, YAHWEH.

“Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.” (Joh 8:58)

Never is anyone refered to as being YHWHs "father", not even Jesus.

I agree.

The Father has "committed" . Various translations render that as "given" , "assigned" "entrusted" ... so God has effectively delegated his Son to act on his behalf in judging. That implies the task has its limits and it temporary in nature. This indeed is the case since Jesus explains he cannot do a single thing of his own initiative and the Apostle Paul explains that the Son will eventually hand back kingdom authority and all that entails to his Father (see 1 Cor 15:24)

Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to the One who subject all things under Him, that God may be all in all. (1 Cor 15:28)

The Son Himself will be subject to the Father, but the Father Himself will subject all things under the rule and authority and power of His Son forever.

What no human, not even Jesus can be is equal to the father in rank, authority, position or age

“Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although existing in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself” (Phi 2: 5-7)

Jesus, as the preincarnate WORD, was in the form of God, being equal with God before He emptied Himself of His divinity.
Jesus has now been restored to His divinity in the form of God, being equal with God after His resurrection.

“And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” (Joh 17:5)