Theological bias in the Amplified Bible

[Elijah John]

Genesis 1.26

God said, Let us [Father, Son and Holy Spirit] make mankind in our image...

That insertion is not my insertion, but is there in the Amplified translation of the Bible. It reveals a blatant Trinitarian Bias that no Jew would accept.

Talk about ignoring "original intent"!

For debate, how common is this kind of corruption in the various translations of the Bible?

Do you have examples of other Bible corruptions?

[McCulloch]

Rather famously, the Jehovah's Witnesses' translation of Greek scriptures into English includes an English transliteration of the Hebrew Tetragrammaton, without any textual justification whatsoever.

[JehovahsWitness]

Rather famously, the Jehovah's Witnesses' translation of Greek scriptures into English includes an English transliteration of the Hebrew Tetragrammaton, without any textual justification whatsoever.

It also uses the English form of Yeheshua (JESUS) .... so?! Do you have a problem with English?

[Elijah John]

How about the Johannine Comma in the KJV, anther example of Trinitarian bias?

Why the tampering, if the Trinity is supposedly already in the pages of the Bible?

Do we have other examples of tampering for theological agendas, not necessarily Trinitarian agendas?

Does such tampering reduce the credibility of those agendas?

[marco]

It also uses the English form of Yeheshua (JESUS) .... so?! Do you have a problem with English?

Moderator Comment



I'm sure it was unintentional , JW, but your question comes over as rather uncivil and critical of another poster's abilities.



Please review the Rules.


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[McCulloch]

The Greek term for “believe� is pisteuo. To assert the opposite idea, the Greeks simply added an “a� (a negative prefix) to the front of the word. Hence, apistia is “unbelief� (Heb. 3:12), and apistos is rendered “unbelievers� (1 Cor. 6:6) or “faithless� (Mt. 17:17).

On the other hand, there is another Greek word, apeitheo, which is found sixteen times in the New Testament. It literally means to “not obey,� or, to say the same thing in another way, to “disobey.� In spite of this clear difference in meaning, the KJV translators rendered apeitheo by “believe not� (or a similar equivalent) some nine times out of the sixteen.

Compare the KJV with the ASV in John 3:36. The former renders apeitheo by “believeth not,� while the ASV translators correctly render the term as “obeyeth not.� The KJV obscures the truth that belief is more than a mere mental process; rather, it entails obedience.

Professor J. Carl Laney has written: “This text indicates clearly that belief is not a matter of passive opinion, but decisive and obedient action� (John: Moody Gospel Commentary, Chicago: Moody, 1992, p. 87).

But such a rendition is not consistent with the “faith-only� position. Hence, some scholars believe that the KJV translators revealed something of their “faith-only� bias by translating apeitheo as “believeth not,� instead of “obeyeth not.�

[Elijah John]

Here's another one:

John 1.18, New International Version

No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known

Compare:.

John 1.18 King James Bible

No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Even the KJV which has a Trinitarian and "faith only" bias doesn't go as far at the NIV, the new favorite of Evangelicals.

Notice the KJV does not include the "who is himself God" portion that the NIV slips in there.

Fast and loose with the truth.

[McCulloch]

[Replying to post 3 by JehovahsWitness]

Translators from Greek into English render the Greek name Ἰησοῦς into Jesus. Ἰησοῦς is, of course, a Greek form of a Hebrew name. The Hebrew root for Jesus' name does not justify translating en entirely Greek word into the Hebrew Tetragrammaton.

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 3 by JehovahsWitness]

Translators from Greek into English render the Greek name Ἰησοῦς into Jesus. Ἰησοῦς is, of course, a Greek form of a Hebrew name. The Hebrew root for Jesus' name does not justify translating en entirely Greek word into the Hebrew Tetragrammaton.

What do you mean by "[an] entirely Greek word into the Hebrew Tetragrammaton" this sentence makes no sense to me, could you explain?


JW

[McCulloch]

[Replying to post 9 by JehovahsWitness]

For example, Luke 2:23 in Greek is, "καθὼς γέγ�απται �ν νόμῳ κυ�ίου ὅτι Πᾶν ἄ�σεν διανοῖγον μήτ�αν ἅγιον τῷ κυ�ίῳ κληθήσεται."

Most translators render this something like, "as it is written in the Law of the Lord 'Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord.'"

But the New World Translation renders this as, "just as it is written in Jehovah’s Law: 'Every firstborn male must be called holy to Jehovah.'"

The word Jehovah is a transliteration of a Hebrew word. That Hebrew word or its equivalent occurs exactly zero times in the texts of Greek scriptures. To render κυ�ίουnas Jehovah is not translation; it is interpretation.