Matthew 2:23 prophecy does not exist

[Justin108]

Matthew 2:23
and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets, that he would be called a Nazarene.


Where was the underlined prophecy made? How could Jesus have fulfilled a prophecy that did not exist?

[dio9]

[Replying to post 1 by Justin108]

Good question
It was Matthew's style to say,"thus fulfilling prophecy" to prove Jesus was the messiah after just about everything Jesus did.

Matthew goofed apparently he wasn't an old testament scholar.

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 1 by Justin108]


QUESTION: Why did Matthew say there was a prophecy that Jesus would be called a Nazarene (Mat 2:23)?

Regarding the Hebrew scripures, the name Narareth literally in Hebrew means "Sprout Town" (from the hebrew 'sprout': Netser). Matthew may well have been linking this with scriptures that refer to the Messiah being of the "sprout" of Jesse as well as Zechariah who describes the prophecied king saying "his name is Sprout" (see Matthew 2: 19 - 23 , Zech 3: 8, 6: 12, 13)

Regarding the substantive nature of Matthew's reference the Pulpit Commentary state:

... the phrase "διὰ τῶν π�οφητῶν" suggests personality rather than writing, and implies either that two or more prophets were the agents by whom the words were spoken, or, better, that in some way the whole company of the prophets (cf. Acts 3:25; Hebrews 1:1) spoke the message now summarized. In this way the phrase will indicate that [the words] represent a phase of teaching common to all
http://biblehub.com/matthew/2-23.htm

[Elijah John]

[Replying to post 1 by Justin108]


QUESTION: Why did Matthew say there was a prophecy that Jesus would be called a Nazarene (Mat 2:23)?

Regarding the Hebrew scripures, the name Narareth literally in Hebrew means "Sprout Town" (from the hebrew 'sprout': Netser). Matthew may well have been linking this with scriptures that refer to the Messiah being of the "sprout" of Jesse as well as Zechariah who describes the prophecied king saying "his name is Sprout" (see Matthew 2: 19 - 23 , Zech 3: 8, 6: 12, 13)

Regarding the substantive nature of Matthew's reference the Pulpit Commentary state:

... the phrase "διὰ τῶν π�οφητῶν" suggests personality rather than writing, and implies either that two or more prophets were the agents by whom the words were spoken, or, better, that in some way the whole company of the prophets (cf. Acts 3:25; Hebrews 1:1) spoke the message now summarized. In this way the phrase will indicate that [the words] represent a phase of teaching common to all
http://biblehub.com/matthew/2-23.htm

Rather than admit that Matthew might have fabricated a prophecy, your post here is a good example of theological and/or linguistic gymnastics.

[JP Cusick]

Matthew 2:23
and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets, that he would be called a Nazarene.

Where was the underlined prophecy made? How could Jesus have fulfilled a prophecy that did not exist?

It comes from the old tradition of the Nazarite in the book of Numbers 6:2-21

The New Testament word translated as Nazarene would be more accurate translated as Nazarite.

How exactly the two words connect into the Jesus prophesy is debatable.

Living in Nazareth does not make one into a Nazarite, but the prophesy of Matthew 2:23 is just that He would be CALLED a Nazarene / Nazarite.

These verses also bring into question if the person of Jesus was really a Nazarite who complied with that tradition? as like He would have uncut long hair at first (let hair grow in verse 5) but then a Narazite is to shave their head at the end per verse 18, so Jesus as an adult might have been shaved bald instead of having long hair.

This stuff can get complicated.

[JP Cusick]

Matthew 2:23
and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets, that he would be called a Nazarene.

Where was the underlined prophecy made? How could Jesus have fulfilled a prophecy that did not exist?

It comes from the old tradition of the Nazarite in the book of Numbers 6:2-21

The New Testament word translated as Nazarene would be more accurate translated as Nazarite.

How exactly the two words connect into the Jesus prophesy is debatable.

Living in Nazareth does not make one into a Nazarite, but the prophesy of Matthew 2:23 is just that He would be CALLED a Nazarene / Nazarite.

These verses also bring into question if the person of Jesus was really a Nazarite who complied with that tradition? as like He would have uncut long hair at first (let hair grow in verse 5) but then a Narazite is to shave their head at the end per verse 18, so Jesus as an adult might have been shaved bald instead of having long hair.

This stuff can get complicated.

[bluethread]

Rather than admit that Matthew might have fabricated a prophecy, your post here is a good example of theological and/or linguistic gymnastics.

That is true. However, he could also be referring to rabbinic tradition, which one could argue engages in "fabrication". Reference to one prophet to represent all of the prophets and "the prophets" to refer to not just what is specifically written, but also rabbinic commentary is not uncommon. I know evangelicals like to use Matthew as a compendium of biblical "proofs". However, I see it as a Midrash(rabbinic teaching), that uses Scripture and tradition in an analogous fashion. The prime example of this is his use of the term "fulfill". He takes a passage that refers to one thing in context and applies it to Yeshua to show that He exemplifies the principle of the passage. Regarding things referred to by the Apostles that do not appear in the Tanach, Paul names two of the conspirators in the Korach Rebellion and speaks of "the spiritual rock that accompanied them". These are both rabbinic and not specifically mentioned in the Tanach.

[JehovahsWitness]

The New Testament word translated as Nazarene would be more accurate translated as Nazarite.

{snip}

This stuff can get complicated.

Yes, which is why a little research and/or google are great...

Naz·a·reneʹ [probably from Heb. neʹtser, “sprout�]: The names Nazarene and Nazirite are not to be confused, for, though spelled similarly in English, they stem from altogether different Hebrew words with different meanings.

source: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200003189

[Elijah John]

The New Testament word translated as Nazarene would be more accurate translated as Nazarite.

{snip}

This stuff can get complicated.

Yes, which is why a little research and/or google are great...

Naz·a·reneʹ [probably from Heb. neʹtser, “sprout�]: The names Nazarene and Nazirite are not to be confused, for, though spelled similarly in English, they stem from altogether different Hebrew words with different meanings.

source: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200003189

So how then, does that help your case in stretching the meaning of the word "Nazarene" rather than admit Matthew fabricated the verse, or as BT indicates perhaps drew the principle from rabbinic tradition?

Do you accept rabbinic tradition as authoritative? Or only the Bible.

[McCulloch]

Yes, which is why a little research and/or google are great...

Naz·a·reneʹ [probably from Heb. neʹtser, “sprout�]: The names Nazarene and Nazirite are not to be confused, for, though spelled similarly in English, they stem from altogether different Hebrew words with different meanings.
source: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200003189

Apparently the Greek words for Nazarene and Nizirite are easily confused as well. Apparently the author of the Gospel of Matthew was mistaken.